NTS paper pattern NAT engineering

First three parts are the same for all NAT tests but the fourth part differs for different categories of NAT.

NAT- I & II (All Categories/Group) Format
Time Allowed: 120 Minutes

SAME FOR ALL GROUPS OF NAT

DIFFERENT EACH

A: Verbal

B: Analytical

C: Quantitative

D: Subject

1.Sentence Completion (5)
2. Analogy                         (3)
3. Antonym                       (4)
4. Comprehension           (5)
5. Synonym                       (3)
Total MCQs :                     20

1. Scenario Based    (12)
2. Statement Based (08)

Total MCQs :                 20

1. Arithmetic (13)
2. Algebra       (04)
3. Geometry   (03)

Total MCQs :     20

Note: This Section of test differs for each group of NAT test i.e NAT-IA, NAT-IE,
NAT-IIB, or NAT-IIB

We will discuss here about the preparation for first three parts of NTS Test which are same for all categories. Here are the Guidelines which will help you in maximizing your score in test and qualifying test very easily.

Analytical reasoning:

Each analytical reasoning question is a logical puzzle, based on a given set of conditions. Like mathematical questions, these questions have exactly one correct answer, which is what you need to select.

Analytical reasoning questions are presented in groups of four or five questions. Each group is based on a short passage followed by a set of conditions. Occasionally, there are graphs and tables instead of a passage. To understand the general format of the question, consider the following example.

Question 1-4:

As part of their sports physical, seven college athletes F, G, H, I, J, K and L are being weighed. In announcing the results of the physical exams, the coach has given the following information.

i. None of the athletes is exactly the same weight as another athlete.

ii. K is heavier than L, but lighter than H.

iii. I is heavier than J

iv. Both F and G are heavier than H.

1 Each of the following could be true EXCEPT A. F is the heaviest.

B. G is the heaviest.

C. I is the heaviest.

D. More than three athletes are heavier than K.

E. More than three athletes are lighter than K.

2 Which of the following, if true, would be sufficient to determine which athlete is the lightest?

A. I is the heaviest

B. I is lighter than K

C. K is heavier than J

D. J is heavier than K

E. Exactly five students are lighter than F.

3 If J is heavier than F, how many different rankings by weight, of the athletes are possible?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

4 If H is heavier than I, which of the following CANNOT be true?

A. I’s weight is equal to the average of F’s weight and G’s weight.

B. I’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight C. J’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight

D. J is the second lightest.

Answers:

1. E 2. D 3. C 4. A

Questions 1-5:

Six actors ---- Bob, Carol, Dave Ed, Frank, and Grace audition for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions will take place over four consecutive days, starting on a Thursday. Each actor will have one audition; the days on which the different actors will audition must conform to the following conditions.

i. At least one audition will take place each day.

ii. No more than two auditions will take place on any day.

iii. No more than three auditions will take place on any two consecutive days.

iv. Bob’s audition must take place on Saturday.

v. Carol’s audition must take place on the same day as another audition. vi. Frank’s auditions must take place on the day before Grace’s audition.

vii. Dave’s audition must take place on a day after Ed’s audition.

1 If only one audition takes place on Thursday which actor could have that audition?

(A) Bob (B) Carol (C) Dave (D) Frank (E) Grace

2 If Bob’s and Frank’s auditions are on the same day, which of the following must be true

(A) Dave’s audition will take place on Thursday

(B) Dave’s audition will take place on Friday

(D) Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday

(E) Ed’s audition will take place on Sunday

3 If the director decides to hold two auditions on Thursday and two on Sunday, how many actors would be eligible to audition on Friday?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

4 If Ed and Grace have their auditions on the same day which of the following must be true?

(A) Ed’s audition will take place on Thursday.

(B) Frank’s audition will take place on Friday.

(D) Grace’s audition will take place on Saturday.

(E) Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday.

5 If Ed’s audition is on Saturday, which of the following actors cannot audition on the same day as any other actor?

(A) Bob (C) Ed (E) Gr

(B) Carol (D) Frank ace

Questions 6-10:

During the first half of the year, from January through June, the chairperson of the mathematics department will be on sabbatical. The dean of the college has asked each of the six professors in the department --- Arkes, Borofsky, Chang, Denture, Hobbes, and Lee--- to serve as acting chairperson during one of those months. The mathematicians can decide the order in which they will serve, subject only to the following criteria established by the dean.

i. Chang will serve as chairperson in February.

ii. Arkes will serve as chairperson before Hobbes does.

iii. Borofsky and Dexter will serve as chairpersons in consecutive months.

6 Which of the following professors could serve as chairperson in January?

(A) Borodfsky (B) Chang (C) Dexter (D) Hobbes (E) Lee

7 In how many ways can the schedule be made up if Lee has to serve as chairperson in May?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 6

8 If Lee serves in April, all of the following could be true EXCEPT

(A) Arkes serves in January (B) Hobbes serves in march

(D) Borofsky serves in June

(E) Hobbes serves in June

9 If Borofsky serves in May, what is the latest month in which Arkes could serve?

(A) January

(B) February

(D) April

(E) June

10 Which of the following CANNOT be true?

(A) Arkes and Lee serve in consecutive months.

(B) Lee and Hobbes serve in consecutive months.

(D) Arkes and Chang serve in consecutive months.

(E) Borofsky and Chang serve in consecutive months.

Solutions 1-5:

First express each of the conditions symbolically:

B, C, D, E, F, and G: 1 audition each

Days: Thu, Fri, Sat, Sun

Each day: 1 or 2 auditions

2 consecutive days: 2 or 3 auditions

B=Sat Cx F<G E<D

1 A violates the condition that Bob’s audition will take place on Saturday (B=Sat). B violates the condition that Carol’s audition cannot be the only audition on a particular day (Cx). Choices C and E are impossible. Since Dave’s audition must take place on a day after Ed’s audition (E<D) and Grace’s audition must take place on a day after Frank’s audition (F<G) neither can take place on Thursday. Only choice D does not violate any of the given conditions, so this is the correct answer.

2 The condition that Bob’s and Frank’s auditions are on the same day completely determines the schedule. They must take place on Saturday (B=Sat). To avoid having more than three auditions on two consecutive days, there can be only one audition on Friday and one on Sunday, which means there will be two on Thursday. Since Frank must have to precede Grace (F<G), Grace’s audition will take place on Sunday. Since Ed must precede Dave, Ed’s audition will take place on Thursday and Dave’s audition on Friday. Finally, Carol’s audition will be the second audition on Thursday. The final schedule is “C and E on Thursday, D on Friday, B and F on Saturday and G on Sunday”. Only choice B is consistent with this schedule, so “B” is the correct choice.

3 Since only one audition can take place on Friday, it cannot be Carol’s (Cx); and, of course, it cannot be Bob’s (B = Sat). Any of the other four actors could audition on Friday as indicated in the following schedules:

E/F on Thu, D on Fri, B on Sat, C/G on Sun C/F on Thu, E on Fri, B on Sat, D/G on Sun

C/E on Thu, E on Fri, B on Sat, D/G on Sun E/F on Thu, G on Fri, B on Sat, C/D on Sun So the correct choice is D.

4 The only schedule that fulfils the conditions is “F on Thu, E/G on Fri, B on Sat, and C/D on Sun”. Only choice E is consistent with this schedule.

5 Since Ed and Bob’s auditions are both taking place on Saturday, eliminate choices A and C. Since Carole must audition on the same day as another actor, eliminate B. Finally, since Dave’s audition must take place on Sunday (E < D), Frank’s audition must take place on Thursday and Grace’s audition on Friday (F < G). Eliminate choice D. The complete schedule is: “C/F on Thu, G on Fri, B/F on Sat, and D on Sun.” Solutions 6-10:

Let A, B, C, D, H, L represents professor names.

C=February, A<H, B<<D and D<<B

6 Only choice E is there, which does not violate any of the conditions, so is the correct choice.

7 With C serving in February and L in May, the only consecutive months available for B and D are March and April. Then since A must serve is before H in June. There are two possible schedules, depending on the order of B and D, so the correct choice is B.

8 If L serves in April, the consecutive months available for B and D are May and June; so choices C and D could be true. Since A must serve before H, choices A and B must be true, only choice E cannot be true.

9 Since A must serve before H does, A cannot serve in June. Can A serve in April? No, because then, D would serve in June (B<<D or D<<B), and again A would not precede H. The latest that A could serve in March, which could occur in the final order: L, C, A, D, B and H.

10 The only professors that can serve in January are A and L, so, one of them must serve in January, and neither serves in February. So choice A cannot be true.

Logical reasoning NAT

Each logical reasoning question requires you to analyze an argument presented in a short passage. Often you are asked either to find a conclusion that is a logical consequence of the passage, or to choose a statement that, if true, strengthen or weakens the argument.

Logical reasoning questions are based upon a passage called argument. You have to analyze the argument presented in the passage. The passage is followed by a question. Occasionally, there is more than one question related be the same passage. No matter what the number is, the questions always aim at your ability to understand the conclusion reached by the author of the passage, and to give argument and contra arguments. Logical reasoning questions are a lot like reading comprehension questions in a verbal section.

For each logical reasoning question, the argument is followed by a multi choice question. The choices are simple statements. Mostly the question statement begins with the phrase “which of the following statements”. Here are a few examples:

• Which of the following statements is an assumption on which the conclusion of this argument is based?

• Which of the following statements identifies a flaw in the reasoning of this argument?

• Which of the following statements can be most reasonably inferred, from the statements in the given passage?

• Which of the following statements, if true, would most seriously, weaken the argument offered?

• Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen the conclusion in the preceding argument?

• Which of the following statements would be the most important to know to evaluate the argument given in the preceding paragraph? Every logical reasoning question does not fit this mold, but you should try.

Questions 1-2:

The microwave oven has become a standard appliance in many kitchens, mainly because it offers a fast way of cooking food. Yet, some homeowners believe that the ovens are still not completely safe. Microwaves, therefore, should not be a standard appliance until they have been carefully researched and tested.

1 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion of the passage above?

(A) Homeowners, often purchase items despite knowing they may be unsafe.

(B) Those homeowners in doubt about microwave safety ought not to purchase microwaves.

(D) Microwaves are not as dangerous as steam irons, which are used in almost every home.

(E) Homeowners often purchase items that they do not need.

2 Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion of the passage above?

(A) Homeowners often doubt the advertised safety of all new appliances.

(B) Speed of food preparation is not the only concern of today’s homeowner.

(D) Food preparation has become almost a science, with more complicated and involved recipes.

(E) Many microwave ovens have been found to leak radioactive elements.

3 Years ago, a poll concluded that there are more televisions than there are bathtubs in American homes. No doubt that fact remains today, especially in light of the growing popularity of home computers. Now, in addition to owning televisions for entertainment, more and more families are purchasing TV monitors for use with a personal computer. We can safely guess that there are still many more people staring at a picture tube than singing in the shower.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from this passage?

(A) Personal computers probably cost less than installing a shower or bathtub.

(B) People can wash themselves without a tub or shower, but they cannot watch television unless they own a television set.

(D) As many computers are sold today as television sets a few years ago.

(E) More television monitors are now used with personal computers than are used to watch commercial television broadcasts.

4 Some scientists have proposed that, over two hundred million years ago, one giant land mass, rather than various continents and islands, covers one third of the earth. Long before there was any human life, and over vast periods of time, islands and continents drifted apart. Australia was the first to separate, while South America and Africa were late in splitting apart. Some islands, of course, were formed by volcanoes and were never part of the great land mass.

All the following would support the author’s claim EXCEPT

(A) Many of the plants of the South American rain forests are markedly similar to those of African rain forests.

(B) Australia has more animals that are not found in any other continent than have several of the much larger continents.

(C) Volcanic islands like Hawaii have ecosystems very different from those of continental lands with the same average temperature.

(D) The plants of similar conditions in South America have less in common with those of Australia than with those of Asia, Africa or Europe.

(E) The primitive languages of Australia are unlike those of Africa, which resembles those of South America.

5 Every Saturday, Amir has pizza for lunch and then goes to the movies. If the statement above is true, which of the following statements must also be true?

1 If it is not Saturday, than Amir is not having pizza for lunch and is not going to the movies.

2 If Amir has pizza for lunch and then goes to the movies, it is Saturday.

3 If Amir has pizza for lunch, but does not go to the movies, it is not a Saturday.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) 2 and 3 only

6 Antifreeze lowers the melting point of any liquid to which it is added so that the liquid will not freeze in cold weather. It is commonly used to maintain the cooling system in automobile radiators. Of course, the weather may become so cold that even antifreeze is not effective, but such a severe climatic condition rarely occurs in well-traveled places.

Which of the following can be deduced from the passage?

(A) Well-traveled places have means of transportation other than automobiles.

(B) Antifreeze does not lower the melting point of certain liquids in extreme conditions.

(D) It is not often that many travelers who use antifreeze have their cooling system freeze.

(E) Antifreeze raises the melting point of some liquids.

Solutions:

1 The conclusion of the passage is that, because of safety concerns, more research and testing ought to be done before microwaves become standard household appliances. If, however, research and testing are ineffective means of discerning safety problems (as choice C says), then research and testing would be irrelevant. This criticism seriously weakens the conclusion. So choice C is the correct answer.

2 If many microwave ovens have been found to leak radioactive elements (as choice E says), then the conclusion  that microwaves should not be standard appliances until they are more carefully researched and tested is further strengthened because more safety concerns need to be addressed. So, choice E is the correct answer.

3 Though Choices A and B may well be true, they cannot be inferred from the information in the passage. But choice C can be inferred since, “more and more families are purchasing TV monitors for use with a personal computer.” TV monitors must work with these computers, otherwise, people would not buy them for that purpose. Choices D and E may or may not true, but they are not inferences from the passage, simply additional information. So, the correct choice is C.

4 If Australia was the first continent to separate, it would follow that its flora and fauna would develop in isolation over a longer period of time. Similarly, we may expect the plants and animal of South America and Africa that separated later, to be more alike. Choices A, B, and D support these ideas. The separately developed islands are different at is also in accord with the passage. However the languages of all the continents would have developed in isolation, since man did not evolve until after the break-up of the landmass, and it is surprising that African and South American languages are similar. Human likeness or differences are irrelevant to the claims of the passage. So choice E is the correct answer.

5 This logical reasoning question is very easy as soon as you express the given statement symbolically. “If it is Saturday, then Amir has Pizza and goes to

S → (P ∧ M) ~ (P ∧ M) →~ S

Movies” translates as . This is equivalent to ,

(~ P∨ ~ M) →~ S

which is equivalent to . So if either P or M is false, then S is false. Therefore, 3 is true, neither 1 nor 2 are true. So, the correct choice is C.

Choice D is the correct answer. Since severe climatic conditions rarely occur in well-traveled places, it is not necessarily true that “It is not often that many travelers who use antifreeze have their cooling systems freeze.” Choice A mentions other means of transportation, which is not addressed in the passage. Choice B refers to “certain” liquids.

Pattern

Verbal ability:

NTS NAT Past paper

The purpose of the Verbal Test is to evaluate and analyze your English comprehension and understanding towards the language. The questions will be basically asked to judge the sentence completion, analogy and critical reading skills. The questions of different types i.e. about sentence completion and analogy testing will be asked randomly. The questions about the critical reading however will be asked separately.

1. Multan ___________ a very hot climate.

A. Has

B. Have

C. Has been

D. With

2. One of the least effective ways of sorting information is learning _________ it.

A. Repeat

B. Repeating

C. To repeat

D. how repeat

3. Salman finished__________ two of his published compositions before his twelfth birthday.

A. Written

B. Writing

C. To write

D. Wrote

4. Sofia __________ collect stamps, but now she has other interests.

A. Used to

B. Was used to

C. Used to be

D. Using to

5. After passing through a great trauma of her husband’s death, she __________ hard to achieve mental relaxation.

A. Struggled

B. Struggling

C. Struggle

D. To struggle

6. In partnership with Pakistan, South Korea ____________on Motor way.

A. Helped worked

B. Helping work

C. Helped working

D. To help working

7. We will wait if you __________ go.

A. Wanted to

B. Want

C. Want to

D. Wanting to

8. If I had more time I ____________ checked my paper.

A. Would have

B. Would

C. Would had

D. Will have

9. I thought that he___________ coming today.

A. Has been

B. Is

C. Was

D. Has

10. That professor enjoys teaching and ___________.

A. Writing

B. Written

C. To write

D. Write

11. Just __________the files on my table.

A. Let

B. Leaves

C. Stay

D. Leave

12. Thank you for __________ me your book.

A. Borrowing

B. Lending

C. Borrowed

D. Had lent

13. ____________ discovery of insulin, it was not possible to treat diabetes.

A. Prior

B. Before to the

C. Prior to the

D. To prior the

14. Distribute the handouts ___________ the candidates.

A. Between

B. Among

C. To

D. In

15. Only _________ were present at the seminar.

A. a few people

B. a little people

C. a few peoples

D. the little people

Answer Key

1. A 9. C

2. C 10. A

3. B 11. D

4. A 12. B

5. A 13. C

6. C 14. B

7. C 15. A

8. A

Analogy

1. HEIGHT: MOUNTAIN

(A) Depth :	Trench
(B) Shade :	Tree
(C) Weight	: Age
(D) Speed :	Highway
(E) Mineral :	Mine

2. OBLIVIOUS : AWARENESS

(A) Comatose : Consciousness

(B) Serene : Composure

(D) Adroit : Skill

(F) Invigorate : Energy

3. BELLWETHER : BAROMETER

(A) Proselyte : Spark plug

(B) Panhandler : Kill

(D) Cynosure : Magnet

(F) Morass : Catalyst

4. ACT : ACTION

(A) Therapy : Thermometer

(B) Oblivion : Obvious

(D) Image : Imagine

(E) Bowl : Bowdlerize

5. BIBULOUS : DRINK

(A) Rapacious : Clothing

(B) Gluttonous : Food

(D) Vegetarian : Meat

(E) Controversy : Reconcile

6. SONG : RECITAL

(A) Author : Bibliography

(B) Episode : Series

(E) Poetry : Prose

7. HOUSE : BIG

(A) Home : Live

(B) School : Daily

(D) Clothes : Socks

8. ANIMAL : MONKEY

(A) Zebra : Giraffe

(B) Stationery: Pencil

(D) Tree : Wood

9. HEAVEY : LIGHT

(A) Fat : Thin

(B) Stupid : Idiot

(D) Beautiful : Diary

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

10. DETER

(A) Twist

(B) Intimidate

(D) Straighten

(E) Supply

11. INDIGENOUS

(A) Modern

(B) Alien

(D) Natural

(E) Conceal

12. THERAPEUTIC

(A) Curative

(B) Injurious

(D) Practical

(E) Slander

13. QUIZZICAL

(A) Amused

(B) Unequivocal

(D) Dissimilar

(E) Lax

14. ANCILLARY

(A) Dependent

(B) Concomitant

(D) Primary

(E) Buffet

15. VIRTUOSO

(A) Wicked

(B) Dazzling

(D) Honorable

(E) Bawdy

Answer Key

1. A	4. D 7. C 10. C	13. B
2. A	5. B 8. B 11. B	14. D
3. A	6. B 9. A 12. B	15. E

There will be 10 question from Physics and same from Math and Chemistry or Computer science.Which you can practice in the NTS sample paper.
This document is shared for educational purposes to make it accessible to every engineering student who is willing to get admission in good universities.

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Saturday 20 August 2016