Thursday, 4 August 2016

Solved NTS NAT test paper

A comprehensive way for solving NAT test is practicing solved papers just a day before exam.

Verbal Section

(MCQs: 20)
          Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank shows that something has been omitted. Choose correct word or pair of words from the options given below.

1.  Your ____________ remarks spoil the effect of your speech; try not to stray from your subject.
(A).           Derogatory                (B).     Digressive
(C).           Persistent                   (D).     Enigmatic

2. The dispute became  so____________ that we were afraid that the adversaries would come to blow.
(A).           Ironic              (B).     Generalized
(C).           Articulate      (D).     Acrimonious

3. Cancer cells are normal cells run riot, growing and multiplying out of ______________
(A).           Spite               (B).     Danger
(C).           Control           (D).     Range

4.  A _________ glance pays ___________ attention to details.
(A).           furtive…meticulous                        (B).     cursory….little
(C).           cryptic….close         (D).     keen….scanty

5. Even if you do not ____________ what I have to say, I will appreciate you listening to me with an open mind.
(A).           Concur with              (B).     Anticipate
(C).           Reject                         (D).     Clarify
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
Each of the following analogy question presents a related pair of words linked by a colon. Select the pair of words whose relationship is most like the relationship expressed in original pair.

(A).     gulp : sip                                (B).     scorn : admire
(C).     hunt : stalk                            (D).     participate : observe

(A).     water : waves                                    (B).     event : memories
(C).     regret : melancholy              (D).     wood : splinters

(A).     poster : billboard                  (B).     letter : alphabet
(C).     prediction : prophecy          (D).     signal : beacon

Select a word or phrase from the options which is the most nearly opposite in meaning to the given capitalized word.

(A).     Simplify                     (B).     Strive
(C).     Rebel                          (D).     Unite

(A).     Dependence              (B).     Animation
(C).     Renown                      (D).     Altruism

(A).     emphasize                 (B).     broaden
(C).     split                            (D).     restore

(A).     keep silence              (B).     prove incorrect
(C).     desecrate                               (D).     accuse openly

 Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied.
It is wonderful to observe how a baby grows. In its infancy, it responds only to pain and hunger. By the second month it can raise its head to look at things around it. It also begins to smile at people. By the time the baby is four months old, it begins to catch at things. By the time the baby is five months old, it can grasp objects and can even feed itself. At about seven months it can crawl. In late infancy its interests increase. It begins to like games, songs and even books.
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
13. In late infancy the baby takes interest in
(A).     playing games                       (B).     reading books
(C).     different activities               (D).     singing songs

14. In what manner do you think the baby responds to hunger?
(A).     shouting                     (B).     laughing
(C).     crying                         (D).     shrieking

15. At five months of age, the baby can feed itself with
(A).     considerable help from the mother                       
(B).     little help from mother
(C).     frequent help from mother
(D).     a little help from mother

16. “By seventh month baby can crawl” means
(A).     the baby can run
(B).     the baby can walk on two legs
(C).     the baby can run on all fours limbs
(D).     the baby can walk on all four limbs

17. In the passage ‘catch at’ means to
(A).     Hold                           (B).     Get
(C).     Try to grasp               (D).     Jump at

Select a word or phrase from the options which is the most nearly similar in meaning to the given capitalized word.

(A).     Pride                           (B).     Wrath
(C).     Humility                    (D).     Inspiration

(A).     Friendly                     (B).     Intrigue
(C).     Loyalty                      (D).     Faithlessness

(A).     Delightful                  (B).     Charming
(C).     Belated                       (D).     Hysterical

Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)

Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
42. If Aslam studies Chemistry on Saturday, which subject must he have read on Thursday?
(A).     English                       (B).     Biology
(C).     Physics                       (D).     Either English or Physics

43. Each of the following is possible, EXCEPT
(A).     Chemistry on Thursday       (B).     Physics on Sunday
(C).     Physics on Thursday           (D).     Biology on Saturday

(Questions 44 – 46)
 (M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
1. M is the daughter of N.
2. N is the son of O
3. O is the father of P.
44.Which of the following statements is true?
(A).     O is the uncle of M.                         
(B).     P and N are brothers
(C).     M is the daughter of P.
(D).     If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters.

45.Which of the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?
(A).     P is the father of M.             
(B).     O has three children.
(C).     M has one brother.
(D).     M is the granddaughter of O.

46.If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then
1. M is the sister of D.
2. D and N are brothers.
3. O is the grandfather of D.
(A).     I only  
(B).     II only
(C).     I and II only
(D).     I and III only
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
(Questions 47 – 51)
Two or more essences of five substances (L, M, N, O, and P) are used in making perfumes by a manufacturer. He has to combine substances according to the following rules for CORRECT COMBINATION.
1. A perfume containing L, should also contain the substance N, and the quantity of N should be twice as that of L.
2. A perfume containing M, must also have O as one of its components and they should be in equal proportion.
3. A single perfume should never contain N as well as O.
4. O and P should not be used together.
5. A perfume containing the substance P should contain P in such a proportion that the total amount of P present should be greater than the total amount of the other substance or substances used.
 47.Which of the following is correct combination for a perfume?
(A).     One part L, one part P          (B).     Two parts M, two parts L
(C).     Five parts P, five parts M    (D).     Four parts O, four parts M

48.Which of the following combinations will be come correct by adding amount of substance N?
(A).     One part L, one part N, five parts P           
(B).     Two parts M, two parts N, two parts P
(C).     One part M, one part N, one part P            
(D).     Two parts M, one part N, four parts P

49.Which of the following should be added to combination of “two parts N and one part” so that it becomes correct.
(A).     One part L                             (B).     Two parts N
(C).     One part O                             (D).     Two parts P

50.Which of the following combination cannot be used together in a Correct way to make perfume containing two or more substances?
(A).     L and M                                 (B).     L and N
(C).     L and P                                   (D).     M and O

51.Which of the following combination can be made CORRECT by eliminating some or all of substances?
(A).     One part L, one part M, one part N, four parts P 
(B).     One part L, two parts N, one part O, four parts P 
(C).     One part L, one part M, one part O, one part P    
(D).     Two parts L, two parts N, one part O, two parts P

52.“Nasir must be a student, he has a book in his hand”. This conclusion is valid only if it is true that:
(A).     Students often have books in their hands.                                   
(B).     All the students have books in their hands.
(C).     Students are required to have books in their hands.                  
(D).     Only students have books in their hands.
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
53.Exactly 7 persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U & V - participate in and finish all of a series of races. There are no ties for any position at the finish of the races. The following statements about the races are always true :
1. V finishes somewhere ahead of P
2. P finishes somewhere ahead of Q
3. Either R finishes first and T finishes last, or S finishes first and U or Q finishes last

If in a race S finishes sixth and Q finishes fifth, which of the following can be true? 
(A).     V finishes first or fourth     (B).     R finishes second or third
(C).     P finishes second or fifth    (D).     U finishes third or fourth*

54.“If Hameed is a member of writers’ group in college, he is member of library group in college”. This statement can be logically deduced from which of following statements
(A).     All the members of library group are member of writers’ group
(B).     Everyone who is member of writers’ group is also member of library group.           
(C).     Hameed is either member of writers’ group or library group               
(D).     Some member of library group are members of writers’ group

(Questions 55 – 60)
Five educational films A, B, C, D, & E are to be shown to a group of students. The films are to be shown in a particular order, which conforms to the following conditions:
1. A must be shown earlier than C.
2. B must be shown earlier than D.
3. E should be the fifth film shown.
55.Which of the following is an acceptable order for showing the educational films ?
(A).     A, C, B, D, E              (B).     A, C, D, E, B
(C).     B, D, C, A, E              (D).     B, D, C, A, E

56.In case C is shown earlier than E, which among the following will hold true?
(A).     A is the first film shown.     (B).     B is the second film shown.
(C).     C is the third film shown.    (D).     D is the fifth film shown.

57.In case D is to be shown earlier than A, then for which among the following is there exactly one position from first through fifth in which it can be scheduled to be shown ?
(A).     A                     (B).     B
(C).     C*                   (D).     D
Nation Aptitude Test (NAT)
58.Which of the following is a pair of films that CANNOT both be shown earlier than E ?
(A).     A and B                      (B).     A and D
(C).     B and C                      (D).     C and D

59.In case D and E are shown as far apart from each other as possible, which among the following would be true ?
(A).     A is shown earlier than B.               (B).     B is shown earlier than C.
(C).     C is shown earlier than E.               (D).     E is shown earlier than B.*

60. In case B, D and E are to be shown one after the other in the given order, the two positions from first to fifth in which A could possibly be shown are
(A).     first and second.                   (B).     first and fourth. 
(C).     second and third.                  (D).     third and fifth.

Part -4
Subject Knowledge 
(MCQs: 40 for NAT-II and 30 for NAT-I)

This part has different format for each group i.e NAT-IA, NAT-IE, NAT-IM, NAT-IIA, NAT-IIO, NAT-IIM, NAT-IIP, NAT-IIB. Some of them have general knowledge and Islamiyat questions. Some have science subject. So better study about the format of each of these groups for this part for better understanding.

1. NAT-I is divided in NAT-IA (for Art/Humanities students), NAT-IE (for Pre-engineering students) and NAT-IM (for Pre-medical students).
2. NAT-II is divided in NAT-IIA (Art/Social Sciences Group), NAT-IIB (Biological Group), NAT-IIM (Management Group), NAT-IIO (Oriental and Islamic Studies Group) and NAT-IIP (Physical Science Group).
Each of these tests consists of FOUR parts.
1. Verbal Ability (20 MCQs)
2. Analytical Reasoning (20 MCQs)
3. Quantitative Reasoning (20 MCQs)
4. Subject Knowledge (30 MCS in NAT-I and 40 MCQs in NAT-II paper)
First three parts of are same for all NAT tests but the fourth part differs for different category of NAT.

NAT- I & II (All Categories/Group) Format
Time Allowed: 120 Minutes


A: Verbal
B: Analytical
C: Quantitative
D: Subject

1.Sentence Completion (5)
2. Analogy                         (3)
3. Antonym                       (4)
4. Comprehension           (5)
5. Synonym                       (3)
Total MCQs :                     20
1. Scenario Based    (12)
2. Statement Based (08)

Total MCQs :                 20
1. Arithmetic  (13)
2. Algebra       (04)
3. Geometry   (03)

Total MCQs :     20
Note: This Section of test differs for each group of NAT test i.e NAT-IA, NAT-IE,
We will discuss here about the preparation for first three parts of NTS Test which are same for all categories. Here are the Guidelines which will help you in maximizing your score in test and qualifying test very easily.

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