## Friday, 14 July 2017

### NUMS 2017 paper MCQs

The original NUMS 2016 past paper can be practiced here.The paper below is for NUMS 2017.

## NUMS 2017 past paper

Total MCQs: 220                                                                                             Max. Marks: 1100
ENTRANCE TEST-2017
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 150 Minutes
PHYSICS Section
Q. 1          The formula for electric field strength is E= F/Q, where E is electric field strength, F is force and Q is charge. Which of the following options gives the correct base units for electric field strength?
A) kgms–2A1                                                    C) kgs–2A-2
B) kg2m–1s2A                                                   D) m2s–1A-1
Q. 2          Which set of the prefixes give values in increasing order?
A) Pico, Mego, Kilo, Tera                               C) Tera, Pico, Micro, Kilo
B) Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga                            D) Giga, Kilo, Mill, Nano
Q. 3          Two forces 5N and 10 N are acting at O and P respectively on a uniform mete rod suspended at the position of centre of gravity 50 cm mark as shown in the figure.
(picture missing)

A) 80 cm                                                         C) 70 cm
B) 10N                                                            D) 65 cm
Q. 4          A 100 kg man is standing in an elevator, which accidentally falls freely, what will be the weight of person in the freely falling elevator (take g = 10m/s2)?
A) 1000N                                                        C) 500 N
B) 10N                                                            D) Zero
Q. 5          What is the speed of an incompressible non viscorus liquid flowing out from B contained in a contained as shown in the figure? Where AB = 5m & g = 10 m/s2:

A) 5 m/s                                                          C) 2 m/s
B) 10 m/s                                                         D) 50 m/s
Q. 6          For the horizontal pipe,  the fluid inside it is flowing horizontally then Bernoulli’s equation can be written as
A) P+rv2 = constant                                       C) P+2 rv2 = constant
B) 2P+rv2 = constant                                     D) 2P+2 rv2 = constant
Q. 7          The value of the least distance of distinct vision or near point is __________ for a normal human eye.
A) 20cm                                                          C) 30cm
B) 25cm                                                          D) 15cm
Q. 8          In a compound microscope, the magnification by objective = 20, magnification by eye place = 11, then the total magnification is
A) M = –220                                                   C) M = –0.05
B) M = –0.19                                                  D) M = 220
Q. 9          The distance between atoms is 0.30 nm, what will be the wavelength of x-rays at angle 0 = 32° for 1 order diffraction?

Q. 10      Frequency of simple pendulum of length 9.8 m will be

Q. 11      An oil film floating on water surface exhibits colour pattern due to the phenomenon of
A) Diffraction                                                 C) Interference
B) Polarization                                                D) Surface tension
Q. 12      A body perform simple harmonic motion with a period of 0.063s. the maximum speed of the body is 3.0 ms–1. what are the values of the amplitude x0 (m) and angular frequency w (rads–1)?
A) x0 = 0.0, w = 100                                       C) x0 = 5.3, w = 16
B) x0 = 0.19, w = 16                                        D) x0 = 3.3, w = 100
Q. 13       Food being cooked in microwave oven is an example of
A) Beats                                                          C) Resonance
B) Overtones                                                   D) Stationary waves

Which feature of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus?

A) Area under graph                                       C) Reciprocal of the gradient
B) Gradient of the graph                                D) Product of gradient area of the curve
Q. 14      A gas containing N number of molecules of gas having mss of each molecule m is tin a cubic container having length of each side a. what is the density of gas contained in cube?
A) N/a2                                                            C) Nm/a3
B) m/a3                                                            D) Na3/m
Q. 15      In general gas equation PV = nRT, n represents the number of moles of ga. Which of the following represents the relation of n?
A) n =NNA                                                      C) n = NA/N
B) n = N/NA                                                    D) n = N+NA
Q. 16      At triple point of water, the pressure of gas is 2680 Pa, by changing T, the pressure increase to 4870 Pa. then , T is
A) 496.38 k                                                     C) Zero
B) 438.96 k                                                     D) 496.38°F
Q. 17      The relation between celslus  and Fahrenheit scales is
At what temperature both scales give the same reading?
A) –100°                                                         C) –180°
B) –40°                                                            D) –173°
Q. 18      A heat engine working according to second law of thermodynamics has 50%. What will be the temperature of the its low temperature reservoir of high temperature reservoir is 327°C?
A) 27°C                                                           C) –180°
B) 127°C                                                         D) –273°
Q. 19      Three NAND gates are connected as shown in the figure.

Which of the following logic gates is formed in the connected circuit?
A) OR                                                             C) NOR
B) AND                                                          D) NAND

Q. 20      What is the input of the truth tables?
 A B Output x = AB+AB 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1

 A) B) X C)                                                                                                                                                                                                          D) X 0 0 0 1 1 0 0. 1 X X 1 1 1 0 0 1 11
Q. 21      The differentiate between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 2.0 mm and area of each plates is 2.0 m2, the plates are in value. A potential difference of 1.0 × 10–4 v is applied across and plates find the capacitance.
A) 4× 104F                                                      C) 8.85×10–4F
B) 3.54ࡵ109F                                                  D) 9.0×10–4F
Q. 22      A solenoid 15cm between long has 300 turns of wire. A current of a flow through it. What is the magnitude of magnetic filed inside the solenoid?
A) 75×10 T                                                     C) 4×10–3T
B) 60×10–3T                                                    D) 750×10–3T
Q. 23      Due to current in straight conductor the distance between magnetic field lines.
A) Increases away from conductor
B) Increases towards conductor
C) Decreases away from conductor
D) Decreases and then increases towards conductor
Q. 24      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to identity the images of
A) Tumors and inflamed tissues                     C) Skin cells
B) Blood cells                                                 D) Bone structure
Q. 25      Stimulated omission of two photos A and B during LASER action is shown in figure

What is the relation of wavelength of two photons?
A)                                                       C)
B)                                                       D)
Q. 26                 Bones absorb grater amount of incident x-rays than flesh. This is because of the fact that.
A) Bones lie below flesh                                 C) Bones contain material of law densities
B) Ultrasonograhy                                          D) Bones contain matrial of high densities
Q. 27      Which of the following techniques is the application of x –rays?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging                     C) Computerized axial tomography
B) Ultrasonography                                        D) Position emission tomography
Q. 28      Which one of the following spectra is most typical of the output of x-rays tube?

Q. 29      Which on of the following has the largest energy content?
A)                                                      C) Infrared rays
B) x-rays                                                         D) Ultra violet resistance
Q. 30      What will be the energy of accelerated electron used to produce x-rays accleratiing potential is 2KV?
A) 2×1010                                                        C) 3.2×1016
B) 1.6×1019                                                     D) 3.2×1018
Q. 31      Process of generating three dimensional images of objects by using laser beam is called
A) Photography                                              C) Holography
B) 3-D cinema                                                 D) Tomogprahy
Q. 32      Which one of the following isotopes of iodine is used for the treatment of thyroid cancer?
A) 1–113                                                         C) 1–131
B) 1–120                                                         D) 1–140

Q. 33      Three points of radioactive radiation are observed as shown in the figure presence of electric field, which type of radiation is shown in the path ‘1’?

A) Alpha                                                         C) Beta
B) Gamma                                                       D) Cathode ray
Q. 34      A beta particle is a fast moving electron, During a b decay how the atomic number and mass number of a nucleus change?

 Atomic number Mass number A) Remains the same Increases by one B) Increases by one Decreases by two C) Increases by one Remains the same D) Decreases by two Decreases by four
Q. 35      A uranium isotope undergoes one a-decay and one -decay. What is the atomic number of the final product?
A) 90                                                               C) 89
B) 91                                                               D) 88
Q. 36      A naturally occurring radioactive element decays two alpha particles. Which one of the following represents the status of daughter element with respect to mass number A and charge number 2?
A) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 2     C) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 8
B) Z decreases by 2 and A decreases by 4     D) Z decreases by 8 and A decreases by 4
Q. 37      A radioactive isotope W decay to x which decay to Y and Y decays to Z as represented by the figure below.

What is the change in the atomic number from W to Z?
A) Increases by 3                                            C) Increases by 5
B) Decreases by 3                                           D) Decreases by 5
Q. 38      What is the absorbed dose D of a sample of 2 kg which is given an amount of 100 J of radioactive energy?
A) 200 Gy                                                       C) 50 Gy
B) 102 Gy                                                       D) 98 Gy

### Chemistry NUMS

Q.45        A polymer of simplest formula CH2 has molar mass of 28000 gmol-1. Its molecular formula will be
A) 100 times that of its empirical formula      C) 500 times of its empirical formula
B) 200 times that of its empirical formula      D) 2000 times that of its empirical formula
Q.46        The number of molecules in 9g of ice (H2O) is
A) 6.02 ´ 1023                                                 C) 6.02 ´ 1022
B) 3.01 ´ 1022                                                 D) 3.01 ´ 1023
Q.47        Ice is less dense than water at
A) 0oC                                                             C) 4oC
B) -4oC                                                            D) 2oC
Q.48        At a given temperature and pressure, the one which shows marked deviation from ideal behaviour is
A) N2                                                               C) CO2
B) H2                                                               D) He
Q.49        According to the number of protons, neutrons and electrons given in the table,            which one of the following option is correct?
 Species Proton Neutron Electron As 33 42 30 Ga 31 39 28 Ca 20 20 20
A)                                            C)
B)                                            D)
Q.50        If the charge value of electron 1.7588 ´10 11 coulombs Kg – 1 , then what would be the mass of electron in grams (charge on electron is a 1.60222 ´ 10 – 19 coulombs)?
A) 9.1095 ´ 10–31g                                          C) 9.1095 ´ 10–28g
B) 91.095 ´ 10–31g                                          D) 0.919095 ´ 10–33g
Q.51        The suitable representation of dot structure of chlorine molecule is

Q.52        When the two partially filled atomic orbital overlap in such a way that the probability of finding the electron is maximum around the line joining the two nuclei, the result is the formation of
A) Sigma bond                                               C) Hydrogen bond
B) Pi-bond                                                      D) Metallic bond
Q.53        what will be the enthalpy change in the above reaction
A) 205.5 kJ mol – 1                                          C) – 205.5 kJ mol – 1
B) Zero kJ mol – 1                                            D) 1 kJ mol – 1

Q.54        Combustion of graphite to form CO2, can be done by two ways. Reactions are given as follow

A) – 676 kJ mol – 1                                          C) + 110 kJ mol – 1
B) – 110 kJ mol – 1                                          D) 676 kJ mol – 1
Q.55        One mole of glucose was dissolved in 1 kg of water, ethenanol, ether and benzene speraterly and molal boiling point constant of each individual solution was found to be 0.52, 1.75, 2.16 and 2.70 in the unit of / °C kg mole–1 respectively which of the following figure shows benzene as solvent in solution?

Q.56        The vapour pressure lines for pure as well as solutions of different concentrations are shown below. Which line represents pure water?

A) (i)                                                               C) (iii)
B) (ii)                                                               D) (iv)
Q.57        In the oxidation number of sulphur is
A) –8                                                               C) –6
B) +8                                                               D) +6
Q.58        Coinage metals Cu, Ag and Au are the least reactive because they have
A) Negative reduction potential                     C) Negative oxidation potential
B) Positive reduction potential                     D) Positive oxidation potential
Q.59        The value of equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction is 10–13 at 2000oC calculate the value of Kp for this reaction
A) 2 ´ 10 – 13                                                                    C) 186 ´ 10 – 13
B) 10 – 13                                                          D) 3.48 ´ 10 – 9
Q.60        What will be the pH of a solution of NaOH with a concentration of 10–3 M?
A) 3                                                                 C) 11
B) 14                                                               D) 7
Q.61        If the reactants or product of a chemical reaction can absorb ultravlolet, visible or infra-red radiation then the reate of a chemical reaction can best be measured by which one of the following methods?
A) Chemical method                                       C) Graphical method
B) Spectrometry                                            D) Differential method

Q.63        The trends in melting points of the elements of 3rd period are depicted in figure below

The sharp decreases observed from ‘Si’ to ‘P’ is due to
A) Decrease in atomic radius from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
B) Change in bonding and structure of two elements
C) Different densities of two elements
D) Increase in electron density from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
Q.64        Arrange the following elements according to the trends of ionization energies C, N, Ne, B
A) Ne < N < C < B                                         C) B < C < N < Ne
B) B < N < C < Ne                                         D) Ne < B < C < N
A) b, cancer                                                    C) a, kidney stone
B) a, cancer                                                   D) b, kidney stone
Q.66        Which one of the following noble gas is used for providing an inert atmosphere for welding?
A) Helium                                                       C) Argon
B) Neon                                                          D) Krypton
Q.67        Electronic configuration of manganese (Mn) is
Q.68        The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of
A) Cast iron > wrought iron > steel                C) Cast iron > steel > wrought iron
B) Wrought iron > steel > cast iron                D) Cast iron > steel = wrought iron
Q.69        Which one of the following is correct equation of 1st ionization of sulphuric acid.

Q.70        Which one of the following is the correct chemical reaction for ammonia formation by Haber process?

Q.71        The pH of acid rain is
A) 7                                                                 C) Below 5
B) Between 5 and 7                                        D) Between 7 and 14
Q.72        Which one of the following product is obtained when sulphur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid
A) Oleum                                                        C) Hydrogen sulphide
B) Aqua regia                                                  D) Sulphate ion
Q.73                    Which one of the following pair of compound is cis and trans isomersm of each other?
Q.74        Which one of the following is a ketone?
A) CH3—O—CH2—CH3                               C) CH3COCOOH
B) CH3—CO—CH2—CH3                           D) CH3—CH2CHO
Q.75        Addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene is governed by
A) Cannizzaro’s Reaction                               C) Aldol condensation
B) Krichoff Rule                                             D) Markownikov’s Rule
Q.76        Ethylene glycols are used as
A) Anaesthetic                                                C) Freezing agent
B) Knocking agent                                          D) Anti-freezing agent
Q.77        The IUPAC name of halothane is
A) 1- Bromo-1-chloro-2,2,2- trifluoroethane
B) 1,1,1-Trifluoro-2 bromo-2-chloroethane
C) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethane
D) 2-Chloro-2- bromo -1,1,1- trifluoroethane
Q.78        If halogenalkanes are mixed with an excess of ethanoic ammonia and heated under pressure amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following reaction?
A) CH3—CH2—NH—CH2—CH3                 C) CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2­
B) CH3—CH2—NH2                                     D) H2N—CH2—CH­2—NH2
Q.79        The formula of 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol is
Q.80        Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be identified and distinguished by
A) Lucas test                                                  C) Bayer’s test
B) Iodoform test                                             D) Silver mirror test
Q.81        Which one of the following alcohol is indicated by formation of yellow crystals in iodoform tests?
A) Methanol                                                    C) Butanol
B) Ethanol                                                      D) Proponal
Q.82        Which one of the following groups is indicated when HCl is formed by reaction of ethanol with phosphorus pentachloride?
A) Amino group                                              C) Halide group
B) Hydroxyl group                                        D) Hydride group
Q.83        A student mixed ethyl alcohol with small amount of sodium dichromate and added it to the hot solution of dilute sulphuric acid. A vigorous reaction took place. He distilled the product formed immediately. What was the product?
A) Acetone                                                     C) Dimethyl ether
B) Acetic acid                                                 D) Acetaldehyde
Q.84        The structure of formula of the product of reaction of acetone with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine is
Q.85        For the reaction:

A) C2H5COCH3                                             C) CH3COCH3
B) C2H5CH(CH3)OH                                      D) C2H5CH2CHO
Q.86        Ethyle butyrate and butyl butanoate are estered with the flavor of
A) Pear                                                            C) Pineapple
B) Banana                                                       D) Apple
Q.87        Acetamide is formed by dehydration of
A) Oxalic acid                                                 C) Butanoic acid
B) Ethanoic acid                                            D) Propanoic acid
Q.88        Organic compound ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both can react with Na-metal to evolve hydrogen gas. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ if react with each other form an organic compound ‘Z’ which gives fruity smell. What tyes of compounds ‘X’ , ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are?
 X Y Z (A) Alcohol Ester Acetic Acid (B) Alcohol Ester Mineral Acid (C) Alcohol Acetic Acid Ester (D) Alcohol Mineral Acid Ester
Q.89        The amino acids which are not prepared by human body are called
A) Essential amino acids                               C) Alpha amino acids
B) Non-essential amino acids                         D) Beta amino acids
Q.90        Which one of the following is glumatic acid
Q.91        Indicate the cyclic amino acid from the following
A) Cysteine                                                     C) Methionine
B) Serine                                                         D) Proline
Q.92        At low pH or in acidic condition amino acid exist as
A) Anion                                                         C) Zwitter ion
B) Cation                                                        D) Neutral Specie

Q.93        The structure shown below represents

A) Proline                                                        C) Glycine
B) Histidine                                                    D) Lysine
Q.94        Which one of the following reagent is used for identification of amino acid?
A) Fehling’s solution                                      C) Ninhydrin
B) Bendict’s solution                                      D) Copper sulphate
Q.95        Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
A) Polyvinylchloride                                       C) Polyethene
B) Polystyrene                                                D) Polyamide
Q.96        Among the most common disaccharides, which one of the followings presents in milk?
A) Sucrose                                                      C) Fructose
B) Maltose                                                      D) Lactose
Q.97        Fats are a type of lipid called glycerides, they are esters of long chain carboxylic acids and
A) Propene -1,2,3-triol                                    C) Propene -1,2,3-diol
B) Propane -1,2,3-triol                                  D) Propane -1,2,3-diol
Q.98        Which one of the following base is not present in RNA?
A) Cytosine                                                     C) Thymine
Q.99        Collagen proteins are present in __________ throughout the body.
A) Muscle                                                       C) Tendons
B) Red blood cell                                            D) Blood plasma
Q.100    Polystyrene is an addition polymer. Which one of the following structure represent the monomer of polystyrene?

Q.101    _______ is an eye irritant.
A) Peroxyacetyl nitrate                                 C) Paramethoxy aniline
B) Peroxyacetyl nitrite                                    D) Peroxyacetyl aniline
Q.102    Which one of the following pollutants can cause death of a person by binding with haemoglobin in red blood cells?
A) Chlorofluorocarbons                                  C) Carbon monoxide
B) Oxides of sulphur                                     D) Oxides of nitrogen

ENGLISH

Q. 103  It is our national duty to _____________ our vote in the general election.
A) Throw                                                        C) Drop
B) Cast                                                            D) Refuse
Q. 104  She is intelligent enough to ___________ things to serve her own purpose.
A) Pick                                                            C) Give
B) Manoeuvre                                                 D) Taxe
Q. 105  She __________ about with excitement on hearing the news of her sister’s wedding.
A) Ran                                                            C) Talked
B)Jigged                                                          D) wept
Q. 106  Everyone should be_____ duties and assignments according to his / her abillties.
A) Prevented                                                   C) Delegated
SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response form.
Q. 107  We were ten miles up the highway when I happened to saw this classified
A                             B                                                         C
D
Q. 108  “All is well what ends well”, said the father when he had finished the story.
A                                      B                           C                               D
Q. 109  Rubber tube upon which children had swing in backvards hung suspended like
A                                             B                                             C
stopped clock pendulums  in the  blazing air.
D
Q. 110  The child was fully dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kichen table.
A                                 B    C                                                  D
Q. 111  The three Abdal Rahman, like his illustrious predecessor, was a young man of
A                                             B                                                 C
twenty three when he took office.
D
Q. 112  Enlarged and beautiful by later Callphs, Al-Zahra become the nucleus of a royal
A                                             B
suburb whose remain  partly evacuated  in and after 1910, can syill be seen.
C                                                 D
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q. 113
A) I thought it over very carefully before broaching the subject to asma
B) I though it an very carefully before broaching the subject to asma
C) I thought it by very carfully before broaching the subject to asma
D) I though it upon very carefully before brosching the subject to asma

Q. 114
A) he left into a blaze of anger
B) he left with a blaze of anger
C) he left in a blaze of anger
D) he left back in a blaze of anger
Q. 115
A) should battered anwar sown submission
B) shahid battered answer into submission
C) shahid down battered anwar into submission
D) shahid was batterd anwar into submission
Q. 116
A) pride was an intrinsic component of his personal make up
B) pride was a intrinsic component of his personal make up
C) pride an intrinsic component of his personal make up
D) pride an intrinsic component of his personal make up
Q. 117
A) The government introduced taz laws whoich gave incentives to factery workers to
reduce pollution
B) The government introduced tax laws who gave incentives to factory workes to reduce
pollution
C) The government introduced tax laws which have incentives to factory workes to
reduce pollution
D) The government introduced tax laws which has incentives to factory workes to
reduce pollution
Q. 118
A) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not to going out
B) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not for going out
C) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not go out
D) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not gone out
Q. 119
A) There was much cheering and singing and a bread fighting across the dining tall.
B) There was much cheering and singing and a bread fight across the dining tall.
C) There was more cheering and singing and a bread fighting across the dining tall.
D) There was much cheer and singing and a bread fight across the dining tall.
Q. 120
A) Both parents of Jameel were then long dies.
B) Both parents of Jameel were then long dead.
C) Both parents of Jameel were  by then long dead.
D) Both parents of Jameel were by then long died.
Q. 121
A) But the men ata their supper with good appetites
B) But the men ata their supper in good appetites
C) But the men ata their supper for good appetites
D) But the men ata their supper into good appetites
Q. 122
A) The boy was afraid of going to jail.
B) The boy was afraid off going to jail.
C) The boy was afraid on going to jail.
D) The boy was afraid by going to jail.
In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the Nearest Correct Meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

### English

Q. 123  The use of living organisms in industry for the production of useful products is known as:
A) Parasitology                                               C) Biotechnology
B) Biochemistry                                              D) Molecular Biology
Q. 124  Plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called:
A) Clone plants                                               C) Parthenocarpic plants
B) Transgenic plants                                     D) Mutant plants
Q. 125  Treatment by using attenuated cultures of bacteria is called:
A) Chemotherapy                                           C) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization                                                D) Vaccination
Q. 126  The major cause of hepatitis B is:
A) Blood transfusion                                     C) Absence of fibrinogen
B) Blood clotting                                            D) Contaminated soil
Q. 127  During animal cell division, the spindle fibres are formed from:
A) Mitochondria                                             C) Ribosomes
B) Centrioles                                                  D) Lysosomes
Q. 128  Which component of the cell is concerned with cell secretions?
A) Plasma membrane                                      C) Cytoskeleton
B) Golgi complex                                           D) Mitochondria
Q. 129  During which period of interphase (cell cycle), DNA is synthesized?
A) G1                                                              C) S
B) G2                                                              D) G0
Q. 130  Peptidoglycan or murein is a special or distinctive of cell wall for:
A) Algae                                                         C) Bacteria
B) Fungi                                                          D) Plants
Q. 131  In mitochondria, small knob like structures called F1 particles are found in:
A) Outer membrane                                        C) Inner membrane
B) Outer compartment                                    D) Inner compartment
Q. 132  The most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter cells is:
A) Prophase                                                    C) Anaphase
B) Metaphase                                                  D) Telophase
Q. 133  Non-dysjunction of 21st pair of chromosome in one of the gametes leads to 47 chromosomes in new individual. This condition is called:
A) Turner’s syndrome                                     C) Down’s syndrome
B) Klinefelter’s syndrome                              D) Jacob’s syndrome
Q. 134  The intake of liquid material across the cell membrane:
A) Phagocytosis                                              C) Pinocytosis
B) Endocytosis                                               D) Exocytosis
Q. 135  Which one of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria?
A) Cristae                                                       C) Outer membrane
B) Matrix                                                        D) Ribosomes
Q. 136  Organelle involved in the sysnthesis of ATP is:
A) Ribosome                                                   C) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria                                            D) Centriole
Q. 137  The most common respiratory substrate as a source of energy is:
A) Glucose                                                     C) Fructose
B) Sucrose                                                       D) Insulin
Q. 138  The simplest monosaccharide containing keto group is:
A) Glyceraldehyde                                         C) Glucose
B) Dihydroxy acetone                                   D) Ribose
Q. 139  If the genetic code is made up of three nucleotides, the total possible genetic codes will be:
A) 4                                                                 C) 64
B) 20                                                               D) 61
Q. 140  Waterproof surface like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body are:
A) Phospholipids                                            C) Terpenoids
B) Waxes                                                        D) Acylglycerols
Q. 141  In translation, the terminating codon is:
A) GUA                                                          C) UUG
B) UAA                                                          D) AGU
Q. 142  All coenzymes are derived from:
A) Proteins                                                      C) Metal ions
B) Carbohydrates                                            D) Vitamins
Q. 143  The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with:
A) Active site                                                  C) Substrate
B) Binding site                                                D) Co-enzyme
Q. 144  Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase enzyme?
A) 7.60                                                            C) 9.00
B) 8.00                                                            D) 9.70
Q. 145  A co-factor tightly bound to the enzyme on the permanent basis is called:
A) Activator                                                    C) Prosthetic group
B) Co-enzyme                                                 D) Apo-enzyme
Q. 146  Which one of the following cells are mainly infected by HIV?
A) T-killer lymphocytes                                  C) B-plasma cells
B) T-helper lymphocytes                              D) B-memory cells
Q. 147  Which one of the following antibiotic causes permanent discoloration of teeth in young children if it is misused?
A) Penicillin                                                    C) Sulphonamide
B) Streptomycin                                              D) Tetracycline

Q. 148  What are the sequence of steps in which a bacteriophage attacks bacteria and injects its DNA?
A) Landing Tail contraction → Penetration → DNA injection
B) Penetration → Landing → Tail contraction → DNA injection
C) Tail contraction → Landing → DNA injection → Penetration
D) Landing → Penetration → Tail contraction → DNA injection
Q. 149  Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by:
A) Bacteria                                                      C) Fungus
B) Virus                                                          D) Arthropod
Q. 150  Ascaris is which one of the following?
A) Ectoparasite                                               C) Respiratory tract parasite
B) Intestinal parasite                         D) Urnogenital tract parasite
Q. 151  Polymorphism is a feature exhibited by members of:
A) Coelenterates                                            C) Porifera
B) Arthropoda                                                D) Platyhelminthes
Q. 152  Which one of the following is the primary host of liver fluke?
A) Man                                                            C) Snail
B) Sheep                                                         D) Dog
Q. 153  Which one of the following is free living carnivorous flatworm?
A) Liver fluke                                                 C) Tapeworm
B) Dugesia                                                      D) Schistosoma
Q. 154  The source of staple food for man are plants which belong to the family:
A) Mimosaceae                                               C) Rosaceae
B) Poaceae                                                     D) Fabaceae

Q. 155  In human, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of:
A) Calcium                                                      C) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D                                                  D) Vitamin K
Q. 156  The function of goblet cells is to secrete:
A) Gastrin                                                       C) Pepsinogen
B) Hydrochloric acid                                      D) Mucus
Q. 157  Gastric glands are made up of ______type of cells.
A) Two                                                            C) Four
B) Three                                                         D) Five
Q. 158  HCl in gastric juice is secreted by which one of the following cells?
A) Chief cells                                                  C) Mucous cells
B) Oxyntic cells                                              D) Kupffer cells
Q. 159  Histamine is secreted by which one of the following cells?
A) Basophils                                                   C) Monocyte
B) Platelets                                                      D) Eosinophils
Q. 160  Which one of the following is the most numerous/ commonest of white blood cells?
A) Eosinophils                                    C) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes                                                 D) Lymphocytes
Q. 161  The oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is transported by the:
A) Pulmonary artery                                       C) Pulmonary vein
B) Coronary artery                                          D) Hepatic artery
Q. 162  Which one of the following proteins takes part in blood clotting?
A) Prothrombin                                               C) Immunoglobulin
B) Fibrinogen                                                D) Globulin
Q. 163  Which one of the following is responsible for the production of concentrated urine?
A) Juxtamedullary nephrons                       C) Proximal tubule
B) Cortical nephrons                                       D) Distal tubule
Q. 164  Reabsorption of useful constituents normally takes place in which one of the following?
A) Proximal tubule                                        C) Bowman’s capsule
B) Distal tubule                                               D) Glomerulus
Q. 165  Which one of the following parts of excretory system in humans act as counter current multiplier?
A) Kidney                                                       C) Medulla
B) Cortex                                                        D) Loop of Henle
Q. 166  Anti-diuretic Hormone (ADH) is released from:
A) Anterior pituitary lobe                               C) Hypothalamus
B) Posterior pituitary lobe                            D) Thalamus
Q. 167  Which one of the following is the main nitrogenous waste product in humans?
A) Urea                                                          C) Salts
B) Ammonia                                                   D) Uric acid
Q. 168  The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by a thick band of nerve fibers called:
A) Medulla                                                      C) Pons
B) Corpus callosum                                       D) Hippocampus
Q. 169  The part of the brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains body position is called:
A) Cerebrum                                                   C) Pons
B) Cerebellum                                               D) Medulla
Q. 170  Which one of the following is the effect of sympathetic nervous system?
A) Constriction of bronchi                              C) Promotes digestion or peristalsis
B) Decrease in heart rate                                 D) Dilates the pupil
Q. 171  High levels of aluminium may contribute to the onset of which one of the following?
A) Parkinson’s disease                                    C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Epilepsy                                                     D) Gonorrhea
Q. 172  Testosterone is produced by which one of the following?
A) Sertoli cells                                    C) Interstitial cells
B) Germinal epithelium                                   D) Spermatogonia
Q. 173  The oocyte released during ovulation is in:
A) Anaphase I                                                 C) Metaphase I
B) Prophase I                                                  D) Metaphase II
Q. 174  Yellow glandular structure formed after the release of egg from follicle is called:
A) Corpus callosum                                        C) Corpus luteum
B) Graffian follicle                                         D) Follicle atresia
Q. 175  On puberty, development of primary follicles is stimulated by:
A) ICSH                                                         C) LH
B) FSH                                                           D) Estrogen
Q. 176  Causative agent of a sexually transmitted disease that affects mucous membrane of the urinogenital tract is:
A) Staphylococcus aureus                               C) Neisseria gonorrhea
B) Treponema pallidum                                  D) Escherichia coli
Q. 177  In a human vertebral column, the number of _____ vertebrae is 7.
A) Cervical                                                     C) Lumbar
B) Thoracic                                                     D) Sacrum
Q. 178  Which one of the following structure holds the bones together?
A) Joints                                                          C) Fibrous capsules
B) Cartilages                                                   D) Ligaments
Q. 179  Which one of the following cartilages is the most abundant in human body?
A) Elastic cartilage                                          C) Fibrocartilage
B) Chondrous cartilage                                   D) Hyaline cartilage
Q. 180  The repeated protein pattern of myofibril is called:
A) Sarcomere                                                 C) Sarcolemma
B) Zyomere                                                     D) Cross bridges
Q. 181  When more energy is required in muscle contraction then that energy can also be produced by _________ as a secondary source.
A) Glucose                                                      C) Fructose
B) Phosphocreatin                                         D) Lactic acid
Q. 182  Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A) Glucagon                                                   C) Epinephrin
B) Thyroxine                                                   D) Oestrogen
Q. 183  The gonadotrophic hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary include:
A) Prolactin, Thyroid stimulating hormone, Somatotrophin hormone
B) Follicle stimulating hormone, Luteinizing hormone, Prolactin
C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone, Luteinizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Luteinizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone, Thyroid stimulating hormone
Q. 184  Over activity of cortical hormone of adrenal gland causes:
A) Addison’s disease                                      C) Cushing’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease                                    D) Down’s syndrome
Q. 185  How many iodine atoms are present in thyroxine?
A) 3                                                                 C) 2
B) 4                                                                 D) 5
Q. 186  T-lymphocytes recognize antigen and attack microorganisms or transplanted organ and tissues. This effect is called:
A) Cell mediated response                            C) Active immunity
B) Humoral immune response             D) Passive immunity
Q. 187  Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response?
A) Heavy part                                                 C) Cosntant part
B) Light part                                                   D) Variable part
Q. 188  Which type of immunity is achieved by injecting antibodies, antiserum, antivenome serum?
A) Active immunity                                        C) Artificially induced immunity
B) Passive immunity                                      D) Naturally induced immunity
Q. 189  Which one of the following glands is involved in the production of lymphocytes?
A) Pineal                                                         C) Thymus
Q. 190  Antibodies are proteins and made up of how many polypeptide chains?
A) One                                                                        C) Three
B) Two                                                            D) Four
Q. 191  Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of:
A) Glucose                                                      C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
Q. 192  In one turn, the Kreb’s cycle produces one molecule of ATP, one molecule of FADH2, and _______ molecule/s of NADH.
A) 1                                                                 C) 3
B) 2                                                                 D) 4
Q. 193  Which one of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for oxygen is not essential?
A) Glycolysis                                                  C) Kreb’s cycle
B) Pyruvate oxidation                                     D) Electron transport chain
Q. 194  Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, moves from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix where it is oxidized into _______ producing CO2 as a by-product.
A) Acetic acid (active)                                   C) NAD
Q. 195
Pyruvate                      Acetyl CoA
?
?
Q. 196  pBR322 have antibiotic resistant genes for:
A) Ampicillin and aspirin                                C) Ampicillin and tetracycline
B) Streptomycin and metronidazole               D) Penicillin and metronidazole
Q. 197  Cystic fibrosis affects which one of the following cells of the body?
A) Epithelial cells                                           C) Plasma cells
B) Endothelial cells                                         D) Blood cells
Q. 198  The enzymes which act as molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology:
A) Exonucleases                                             C) Polymerases
B) Endonucleases                                          D) Reverse transcriptase
Q. 199  Which one of the following is a correct sequence of PCR?
A) Heating → Cooling → Add Primer → Copying of strand
B) Heating → Add primer → Cooling → Copying of strand
C) Add primer → Heating → Cooling → Copying of strand
D) Cooling → Add primer → Heating → Copying of strand

Q. 200  When two pieces of DNA are joined together, the result is which one of the following?
A) Complementary DNA                               C) Recombinant DNA
B) Mutated DNA                                           D) Cloned DNA
Q. 201  How many food chains are present in the following food web?
A) 5                                                                 C) 6
B) 3                                                                 D) 4
Q. 202  Which one of the following is the ultimate distributional unit within which a species is restrained by the limitations of its physical structure and physiology?
A) Niche                                                         C) Ecosystem
B) Biome                                                         D) Habitat
Q. 203  All herbivores belong to which trophic level in the food chain?
A) T1                                                               C) T3
B) T2                                                              D) T4
Q. 204  Individual successions are known as:
A) Primary successions                                   C) Seres
B) Secondary successions                               D) Xeroseres
Q. 205  The relationship in which one organism gets benefit and the other is not affected is called:
A) Mutualism                                                  C) Predation
B) Commensalism                                         D) Parasitism
Q. 206  When a gene suppresses the effect of a gene at another locus, this is called:
A) Epistasis                                                    C) Complete dominance
B) Co-dominance                                            D) Mutation
Q. 207  In male, the sex determining gene is:
A) XY                                                             C) SXY
B) SRY                                                           D) SXX
Q. 208  A gene which affects two or more unrelated characteristics is called:
A) Pleiotropic                                                 C) Dominant
B) Epistatic                                                     D) Mutated
Q. 209  Position of an allele within a DNA molecule is:
A) Locus                                                         C) Amplicon
B) Origin                                                         D) Filial
Q. 210  Sickle cell anemia is a type of:
A) Insertion                                                     C) Deletion

B) Transposition                                              D) Base substitution