The original NUMS 2016 past paper can be practiced here.The paper below is for NUMS 2017.
NUMS 2017 past paper
Total
MCQs: 220 Max. Marks: 1100
ENTRANCE TEST-2017
For
F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 150 Minutes
PHYSICS Section
Q. 1
The formula for electric field strength is E= F/Q, where E is
electric field strength, F is force and Q is charge. Which of the following
options gives the correct base units for electric field strength?
A) kgms–2A1 C)
kgs–2A-2
B) kg2m–1s2A D)
m2s–1A-1
Q. 2
Which set of the prefixes give values in increasing order?
A) Pico, Mego, Kilo, Tera C) Tera, Pico,
Micro, Kilo
B) Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga D) Giga, Kilo, Mill,
Nano
Q. 3
Two forces 5N and 10 N are acting at O and P respectively on a
uniform mete rod suspended at the position of centre of gravity 50 cm mark as
shown in the figure.
(picture
missing)
A) 80 cm C)
70 cm
B) 10N D)
65 cm
Q. 4
A 100 kg man is standing in an elevator, which accidentally falls
freely, what will be the weight of person in the freely falling elevator (take
g = 10m/s2)?
A) 1000N C)
500 N
B) 10N D)
Zero
Q. 5
What is the speed of an incompressible non viscorus liquid flowing
out from B contained in a contained as shown in the figure? Where AB = 5m &
g = 10 m/s2:
A) 5 m/s C)
2 m/s
B) 10 m/s D)
50 m/s
Q. 6
For the horizontal pipe, the
fluid inside it is flowing horizontally then Bernoulli’s equation can be
written as
A) P+rv2 = constant C) P+2 rv2 = constant
B) 2P+rv2 = constant D) 2P+2 rv2 = constant
Q. 7
The value of the least distance of distinct vision or near point is
__________ for a normal human eye.
A) 20cm C)
30cm
B) 25cm D)
15cm
Q. 8
In a compound microscope, the magnification by objective = 20,
magnification by eye place = 11, then the total magnification is
A) M = –220 C)
M = –0.05
B) M = –0.19 D)
M = 220
Q. 9
The distance between atoms is 0.30 nm, what will be the wavelength
of x-rays at angle 0 = 32° for 1 order diffraction?
Q. 10
Frequency of simple pendulum of length 9.8 m will be
Q. 11 An oil film floating on water surface exhibits colour pattern due to the
phenomenon of
A)
Diffraction C)
Interference
B)
Polarization D)
Surface tension
Q. 12
A body perform simple harmonic motion with a period of 0.063s. the
maximum speed of the body is 3.0 ms–1. what are the values of the amplitude x0
(m) and angular frequency w (rads–1)?
A) x0
= 0.0, w = 100 C)
x0 = 5.3, w = 16
B) x0
= 0.19, w = 16 D)
x0 = 3.3, w = 100
Q. 13
Food being cooked in
microwave oven is an example of
A)
Beats C)
Resonance
B)
Overtones D)
Stationary waves
Which feature
of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus?
A) Area under graph C)
Reciprocal of the gradient
B) Gradient of the graph D)
Product of gradient area of the curve
Q. 14
A gas containing N number of molecules
of gas having mss of each molecule m is tin a cubic container having length of
each side a. what is the density of gas contained in cube?
A) N/a2 C)
Nm/a3
B) m/a3 D)
Na3/m
Q. 15
In general gas equation PV = nRT, n represents the number of moles
of ga. Which of the following represents the relation of n?
A) n =NNA C)
n = NA/N
B) n = N/NA D)
n = N+NA
Q. 16
At triple point of water, the pressure of gas is 2680 Pa, by
changing T, the pressure increase to 4870 Pa. then , T is
A) 496.38 k C)
Zero
B) 438.96 k D)
496.38°F
Q. 17
The relation between celslus
and Fahrenheit scales is
At what temperature both scales give the same reading?
A) –100° C)
–180°
B) –40° D)
–173°
Q. 18
A heat engine working according to second law of thermodynamics has
50%. What will be the temperature of the its low temperature reservoir of high
temperature reservoir is 327°C?
A) 27°C C)
–180°
B) 127°C D)
–273°
Q. 19
Three NAND gates are connected as shown in the figure.
Which
of the following logic gates is formed in the connected circuit?
A) OR C)
NOR
B) AND D)
NAND
Q. 20
What is the input of the truth tables?
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A
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B
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Output x = AB+AB
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0
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0
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0
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1
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1
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0
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1
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1
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A)
B)
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X
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C)
D)
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X
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0
0
0
1
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1
0
0.
1
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||
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X
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X
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1
1
1
0
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0
1
11
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Q. 21
The differentiate between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
is 2.0 mm and area of each plates is 2.0 m2, the plates are in
value. A potential difference of 1.0 × 10–4 v is applied across and
plates find the capacitance.
A) 4× 104F C)
8.85×10–4F
B) 3.54ࡵ109F D)
9.0×10–4F
Q. 22
A solenoid 15cm between long has 300 turns of wire. A current of a
flow through it. What is the magnitude of magnetic filed inside the solenoid?
A) 75×10 T C)
4×10–3T
B) 60×10–3T D)
750×10–3T
Q. 23
Due to current in straight conductor the distance between magnetic
field lines.
A) Increases away from conductor
B) Increases towards conductor
C) Decreases away from conductor
D) Decreases and then increases towards
conductor
Q. 24
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to identity the images of
A) Tumors and inflamed tissues C) Skin cells
B) Blood cells D) Bone structure
Q. 25
Stimulated omission of two photos A and B during LASER action is
shown in figure
What
is the relation of wavelength of two photons?
A) 
C)
C)
B) 
D)
D)
Q. 26
Bones absorb grater amount of incident
x-rays than flesh. This is because of the fact that.
A) Bones lie below flesh C) Bones contain
material of law densities
B) Ultrasonograhy D) Bones contain matrial of
high densities
Q. 27
Which of the following techniques is the application of x –rays?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging C) Computerized axial
tomography
B) Ultrasonography D) Position emission
tomography
Q. 28
Which one of the following spectra is most typical of the output of
x-rays tube?
Q. 29
Which on of the following has the largest energy content?
A) C)
Infrared rays
B) x-rays D)
Ultra violet resistance
Q. 30
What will be the energy of accelerated electron used to produce
x-rays accleratiing potential is 2KV?
A) 2×1010 C) 3.2×1016
B) 1.6×1019 D)
3.2×1018
Q. 31
Process of generating three dimensional images of objects by using
laser beam is called
A) Photography C) Holography
B) 3-D cinema D) Tomogprahy
Q. 32
Which one of the following isotopes of iodine is used for the
treatment of thyroid cancer?
A) 1–113 C)
1–131
B) 1–120 D)
1–140
Q. 33
Three points of radioactive radiation are observed as shown in the
figure presence of electric field, which type of radiation is shown in the path
‘1’?
A) Alpha C)
Beta
B) Gamma D)
Cathode ray
Q. 34
A beta particle is a fast moving electron, During a b decay
how the atomic number and mass number of a nucleus change?
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Atomic number
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Mass number
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A)
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Remains the same
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Increases by one
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B)
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Increases by one
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Decreases by two
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C)
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Increases by one
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Remains the same
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D)
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Decreases by two
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Decreases by four
|
Q. 35
A uranium isotope undergoes one a-decay and one -decay. What is the atomic number of the final product?
A) 90 C)
89
B) 91 D)
88
Q. 36
A naturally occurring radioactive element decays two alpha
particles. Which one of the following represents the status of daughter element
with respect to mass number A and charge number 2?
A) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 2 C) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 8
B) Z decreases by 2 and A decreases by 4 D) Z decreases by 8 and A decreases by 4
Q. 37
A radioactive isotope W decay to x which decay to Y and Y decays to
Z as represented by the figure below.
What is the change in the atomic number
from W to Z?
A) Increases by 3 C) Increases by 5
B) Decreases by 3 D) Decreases by 5
Q. 38
What is the absorbed dose D of a sample of 2 kg which is given an
amount of 100 J of radioactive energy?
A) 200 Gy C)
50 Gy
B) 102 Gy D)
98 Gy
Chemistry NUMS
Q.45
A polymer of simplest formula CH2
has molar mass of 28000 gmol-1. Its molecular formula will be
A) 100 times that of its empirical formula C) 500 times of its empirical formula
B) 200 times that
of its empirical formula D) 2000
times that of its empirical formula
Q.46
The number of molecules in 9g of ice (H2O) is
A) 6.02 ´ 1023 C)
6.02 ´ 1022
B) 3.01 ´ 1022 D) 3.01 ´ 1023
Q.47
Ice is less dense than water at
A) 0oC C) 4oC
B) -4oC D)
2oC
Q.48
At a given temperature and pressure, the one which shows marked
deviation from ideal behaviour is
A) N2 C) CO2
B) H2 D)
He
Q.49
According to the number of protons, neutrons and electrons given in
the table, which one of the
following option is correct?
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Species
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Proton
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Neutron
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Electron
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As
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33
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42
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30
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Ga
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31
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39
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28
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Ca
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20
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20
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20
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A) 
C)
C)
B) 
D)
D)
Q.50
If the charge value of electron 1.7588 ´10
11 coulombs Kg – 1 , then what would be the mass of electron
in grams (charge on electron is a 1.60222 ´ 10 – 19 coulombs)?
A) 9.1095 ´ 10–31g
C) 9.1095 ´ 10–28g
B) 91.095 ´ 10–31g D)
0.919095 ´ 10–33g
Q.51
The suitable representation of dot structure of chlorine molecule is
Q.52
When the two partially filled atomic orbital overlap in such a way
that the probability of finding the electron is maximum around the line joining
the two nuclei, the result is the formation of
A) Sigma bond C)
Hydrogen bond
B) Pi-bond D) Metallic
bond
Q.53
what will be the enthalpy change in the above reaction
A) 205.5 kJ mol – 1 C) – 205.5 kJ mol – 1
B) Zero kJ mol – 1 D)
1 kJ mol – 1
Q.54
Combustion of graphite to form CO2, can be done by two
ways. Reactions are given as follow
A) – 676 kJ mol – 1 C)
+ 110 kJ mol – 1
B) – 110 kJ mol – 1 D) 676 kJ mol – 1
Q.55
One mole of glucose was dissolved in 1 kg of water, ethenanol, ether
and benzene speraterly and molal boiling point constant of each individual
solution was found to be 0.52, 1.75, 2.16 and 2.70 in the unit of / °C kg mole–1
respectively which of the following figure shows benzene as solvent in solution?
Q.56
The vapour pressure lines for pure as well as solutions of different
concentrations are shown below. Which line represents pure water?
A) (i) C) (iii)
B) (ii) D)
(iv)
Q.57
In the oxidation number of sulphur is
A)
–8 C)
–6
B) +8 D)
+6
Q.58
Coinage metals Cu, Ag and Au are the
least reactive because they have
A)
Negative reduction potential C)
Negative oxidation potential
B) Positive reduction potential D) Positive oxidation potential
Q.59
The value of equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction is 10–13 at 2000oC calculate the value
of Kp for this reaction
A) 2 ´ 10 – 13 C)
186 ´ 10 – 13
B) 10 – 13 D)
3.48 ´ 10 – 9
Q.60
What will be the pH of a solution of NaOH with a concentration of 10–3
M?
A) 3 C) 11
B) 14 D)
7
Q.61
If the reactants or product of a chemical reaction can absorb
ultravlolet, visible or infra-red radiation then the reate of a chemical
reaction can best be measured by which one of the following methods?
A) Chemical method C)
Graphical method
B) Spectrometry D)
Differential method
Q.63
The trends in melting points of the
elements of 3rd period are depicted in figure below
The sharp decreases
observed from ‘Si’ to ‘P’ is due to
A) Decrease in atomic radius from ‘Si’
to ‘P’
B) Change in bonding and structure of
two elements
C) Different densities of two
elements
D)
Increase in electron density from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
Q.64
Arrange the following elements
according to the trends of ionization energies C, N, Ne, B
A) Ne < N < C < B C) B < C < N < Ne
B) B < N < C < Ne D) Ne
< B < C < N
Q.65
Radon is ____ emitter and being radioactive is
used in _______ treatment in radiotherapy
A) b, cancer C)
a, kidney stone
B) a, cancer D)
b, kidney stone
Q.66
Which one of the following noble gas is used for
providing an inert atmosphere for welding?
A) Helium C) Argon
B) Neon D)
Krypton
Q.67
Electronic configuration of manganese (Mn) is
Q.68
The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in
the order of
A) Cast iron > wrought iron > steel C) Cast iron
> steel > wrought iron
B) Wrought iron > steel >
cast iron D) Cast iron > steel = wrought iron
Q.69
Which one of the following is correct equation
of 1st ionization of sulphuric acid.
Q.70
Which one of the following is the correct chemical reaction for
ammonia formation by Haber process?
Q.71
The pH of acid rain is
A) 7 C) Below 5
B) Between 5 and 7 D)
Between 7 and 14
Q.72
Which one of the following product is obtained when sulphur trioxide
is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid
A) Oleum C) Hydrogen sulphide
B) Aqua regia D)
Sulphate ion
Q.73
Which one of the following pair of
compound is cis and trans isomersm of each other?
Q.74
Which one of the following is a ketone?
A) CH3—O—CH2—CH3 C) CH3COCOOH
B)
CH3—CO—CH2—CH3 D)
CH3—CH2CHO
Q.75
Addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an
unsymmetrical alkene is governed by
A) Cannizzaro’s Reaction C) Aldol condensation
B) Krichoff Rule D) Markownikov’s Rule
Q.76
Ethylene glycols are used as
A) Anaesthetic C)
Freezing agent
B) Knocking agent D) Anti-freezing agent
Q.77
The IUPAC name of halothane is
A) 1- Bromo-1-chloro-2,2,2-
trifluoroethane
B) 1,1,1-Trifluoro-2 bromo-2-chloroethane
C) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethane
D) 2-Chloro-2- bromo -1,1,1- trifluoroethane
Q.78
If halogenalkanes are mixed with an excess of ethanoic ammonia and
heated under pressure amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following
reaction?
A) CH3—CH2—NH—CH2—CH3 C) CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
B) CH3—CH2—NH2 D) H2N—CH2—CH2—NH2
Q.79
The formula of 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol is
Q.80
Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be identified and
distinguished by
A) Lucas test C)
Bayer’s test
B) Iodoform test D)
Silver mirror test
Q.81
Which one of the following alcohol is indicated by formation of
yellow crystals in iodoform tests?
A) Methanol C)
Butanol
B) Ethanol D) Proponal
Q.82
Which one of the following groups is indicated when HCl is formed by
reaction of ethanol with phosphorus pentachloride?
A) Amino group C)
Halide group
B) Hydroxyl group D) Hydride group
Q.83
A student mixed ethyl alcohol with small amount of sodium dichromate
and added it to the hot solution of dilute sulphuric acid. A vigorous reaction
took place. He distilled the product formed immediately. What was the product?
A) Acetone C)
Dimethyl ether
B) Acetic acid D) Acetaldehyde
Q.84
The structure of formula of the product of reaction of acetone with
2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine is
Q.85
For the reaction:
A) C2H5COCH3 C)
CH3COCH3
B) C2H5CH(CH3)OH D) C2H5CH2CHO
Q.86
Ethyle butyrate and butyl butanoate are estered with the flavor
of
A) Pear C) Pineapple
B) Banana D)
Apple
Q.87
Acetamide is formed by dehydration of
A) Oxalic acid C)
Butanoic acid
B) Ethanoic acid D) Propanoic acid
Q.88
Organic compound ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both can react with Na-metal to evolve
hydrogen gas. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ if react with each other form an organic compound ‘Z’
which gives fruity smell. What tyes of compounds ‘X’ , ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are?
|
|
X
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Y
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Z
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(A)
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Alcohol
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Ester
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Acetic Acid
|
|
(B)
|
Alcohol
|
Ester
|
Mineral Acid
|
|
(C)
|
Alcohol
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Acetic Acid
|
Ester
|
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(D)
|
Alcohol
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Mineral Acid
|
Ester
|
Q.89
The amino acids which are not prepared by human body are called
A) Essential amino acids C)
Alpha amino acids
B) Non-essential amino acids D)
Beta amino acids
Q.90
Which one of the following is glumatic acid
Q.91
Indicate the cyclic amino acid from the following
A) Cysteine C)
Methionine
B) Serine D) Proline
Q.92
At low pH or in acidic condition amino acid exist as
A) Anion C)
Zwitter ion
B) Cation D)
Neutral Specie
Q.93
The structure shown below represents
A) Proline C)
Glycine
B) Histidine D)
Lysine
Q.94
Which one of the following reagent is used for identification of
amino acid?
A) Fehling’s solution C) Ninhydrin
B) Bendict’s solution D)
Copper sulphate
Q.95
Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
A) Polyvinylchloride C)
Polyethene
B) Polystyrene D) Polyamide
Q.96
Among the most common disaccharides,
which one of the followings presents in milk?
A) Sucrose C)
Fructose
B) Maltose D) Lactose
Q.97
Fats are a type of lipid called glycerides, they are esters of long
chain carboxylic acids and
A) Propene -1,2,3-triol C)
Propene -1,2,3-diol
B) Propane
-1,2,3-triol D)
Propane -1,2,3-diol
Q.98
Which one of the following base is not present in RNA?
A) Cytosine C) Thymine
B) Adenine D)
Guanine
Q.99
Collagen proteins are present in __________ throughout the
body.
A) Muscle C) Tendons
B) Red blood cell D)
Blood plasma
Q.100 Polystyrene is an addition
polymer. Which one of the following structure represent the monomer of polystyrene?
Q.101 _______ is an eye
irritant.
A) Peroxyacetyl
nitrate C)
Paramethoxy aniline
B) Peroxyacetyl nitrite D)
Peroxyacetyl aniline
Q.102 Which one of the following
pollutants can cause death of a person by binding with haemoglobin in red blood
cells?
A) Chlorofluorocarbons
C) Carbon monoxide
B) Oxides of sulphur
D)
Oxides of nitrogen
ENGLISH
Q. 103 It is our national duty to _____________ our vote in the general
election.
A) Throw C)
Drop
B) Cast D)
Refuse
Q. 104 She is intelligent enough
to ___________ things to serve her own purpose.
A) Pick C)
Give
B) Manoeuvre D)
Taxe
Q. 105 She __________ about with
excitement on hearing the news of her sister’s wedding.
A) Ran C)
Talked
B)Jigged D)
wept
Q. 106 Everyone should be_____
duties and assignments according to his / her abillties.
A) Prevented C)
Delegated
B) Advised D)
Suggested
SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some
segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that
underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be
corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in
the MCQ Response form.
Q. 107 We were ten miles up the highway when I happened to saw this
classified
A B C
advertisement in the newspaper.
D
Q. 108 “All is well what
ends well”, said the father when he had finished the story.
A B C D
Q. 109 Rubber tube upon which
children had swing in backvards hung suspended like
A B C
stopped clock pendulums in
the blazing air.
D
Q. 110 The child was fully
dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kichen table.
A B C D
Q. 111 The three Abdal Rahman, like his illustrious predecessor, was a
young man of
A B C
twenty three when he took office.
D
Q. 112 Enlarged and beautiful by
later Callphs, Al-Zahra become the nucleus of a royal
A B
suburb whose remain partly evacuated in and after 1910, can syill be seen.
C D
In each of the following
questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and
fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q. 113
A) I thought it over very carefully before broaching the subject to
asma
B) I though it an very carefully before broaching the subject to
asma
C) I thought it by very carfully before broaching the subject to
asma
D) I though it upon very carefully before brosching the subject to
asma
Q. 114
A) he left into a blaze of anger
B) he left with a blaze of anger
C) he left in a blaze of anger
D) he left back in a blaze of anger
Q. 115
A) should battered anwar sown submission
B) shahid battered answer into submission
C) shahid down battered anwar into submission
D) shahid was batterd anwar
into submission
Q. 116
A) pride was an intrinsic
component of his personal make up
B) pride was a intrinsic component of his personal make up
C) pride an intrinsic component of his personal make up
D) pride an intrinsic component of his personal make up
Q. 117
A) The government introduced taz laws whoich gave incentives to
factery workers to
reduce pollution
B) The government introduced tax laws who gave incentives to factory
workes to reduce
pollution
C) The government introduced tax laws which have incentives to
factory workes to
reduce pollution
D) The government introduced tax laws which has incentives to
factory workes to
reduce pollution
Q. 118
A) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not to going out
B) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not for going out
C) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not go out
D) it was cold and foggy, and he dared not gone out
Q. 119
A) There was much cheering and singing and a bread fighting across
the dining tall.
B) There was much cheering and singing and a bread fight across the
dining tall.
C) There was more cheering and singing and a bread fighting across
the dining tall.
D) There was much cheer and singing and a bread fight across the
dining tall.
Q. 120
A) Both parents of Jameel were
then long dies.
B) Both parents of Jameel were then long dead.
C) Both parents of Jameel were by then long dead.
D) Both parents of Jameel were by then long died.
Q. 121
A) But the
men ata their supper with good appetites
B) But the men ata their supper in good appetites
C) But the men ata their supper for good appetites
D) But the men ata their supper into good appetites
Q. 122
A) The boy was afraid of going to jail.
B) The boy was afraid off going to jail.
C) The boy was afraid on going to jail.
D) The boy was afraid by going to jail.
In each of the following
questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select
the Nearest Correct Meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle
on the MCQ Response Form.
English
Q. 123 The use of living organisms in industry for the production of useful
products is known as:
A) Parasitology C) Biotechnology
B) Biochemistry D) Molecular Biology
Q. 124 Plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called:
A) Clone plants C) Parthenocarpic
plants
B)
Transgenic plants D)
Mutant plants
Q. 125 Treatment by using attenuated cultures of bacteria is called:
A) Chemotherapy C) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization D) Vaccination
Q. 126 The major cause of hepatitis B is:
A)
Blood transfusion C)
Absence of fibrinogen
B) Blood clotting D) Contaminated soil
Q. 127 During animal cell division, the spindle fibres are formed from:
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B)
Centrioles D)
Lysosomes
Q. 128 Which component of the cell is concerned with cell secretions?
A) Plasma membrane C) Cytoskeleton
B)
Golgi complex D)
Mitochondria
Q. 129 During which period of interphase (cell cycle), DNA is synthesized?
A) G1 C) S
B) G2 D)
G0
Q. 130 Peptidoglycan or murein is a special or distinctive of cell wall
for:
A) Algae C) Bacteria
B) Fungi D)
Plants
Q. 131 In mitochondria, small knob like structures called F1 particles are
found in:
A) Outer membrane C) Inner membrane
B) Outer compartment D)
Inner compartment
Q. 132 The most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution
of chromatids in the daughter cells is:
A) Prophase C) Anaphase
B) Metaphase D) Telophase
Q. 133 Non-dysjunction of 21st pair of chromosome in one of the
gametes leads to 47 chromosomes in new individual. This condition is called:
A) Turner’s syndrome C) Down’s syndrome
B) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Jacob’s
syndrome
Q. 134 The intake of liquid material across the cell membrane:
A) Phagocytosis C) Pinocytosis
B) Endocytosis D) Exocytosis
Q. 135 Which one of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation
in mitochondria?
A)
Cristae C)
Outer membrane
B) Matrix D)
Ribosomes
Q. 136 Organelle involved in the sysnthesis of ATP is:
A) Ribosome C)
Nucleus
B)
Mitochondria D)
Centriole
Q. 137 The most common respiratory substrate as a source of energy is:
A)
Glucose C)
Fructose
B) Sucrose D)
Insulin
Q. 138 The simplest monosaccharide containing keto group is:
A) Glyceraldehyde C) Glucose
B)
Dihydroxy acetone D)
Ribose
Q. 139 If the genetic code is made up of three nucleotides, the total
possible genetic codes will be:
A) 4 C) 64
B) 20 D)
61
Q. 140 Waterproof surface like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of
an insect’s body are:
A) Phospholipids C) Terpenoids
B)
Waxes D)
Acylglycerols
Q. 141 In translation, the terminating codon is:
A) GUA C)
UUG
B)
UAA D)
AGU
Q. 142 All coenzymes are derived from:
A) Proteins C)
Metal ions
B) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins
Q. 143 The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with:
A) Active site C) Substrate
B) Binding site D) Co-enzyme
Q. 144 Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase
enzyme?
A) 7.60 C)
9.00
B) 8.00 D)
9.70
Q. 145 A co-factor tightly bound to the enzyme on the permanent basis is
called:
A) Activator C) Prosthetic group
B) Co-enzyme D) Apo-enzyme
Q. 146 Which one of the following cells are mainly infected by HIV?
A) T-killer lymphocytes C) B-plasma
cells
B)
T-helper lymphocytes D) B-memory cells
Q. 147 Which one of the following antibiotic causes permanent discoloration
of teeth in young children if it is misused?
A) Penicillin C) Sulphonamide
B) Streptomycin D) Tetracycline
Q. 148 What are the sequence of steps in which a bacteriophage attacks
bacteria and injects its DNA?
A)
Landing → Tail contraction
→ Penetration → DNA injection
B) Penetration → Landing → Tail contraction → DNA
injection
C) Tail contraction → Landing → DNA injection →
Penetration
D) Landing → Penetration → Tail contraction → DNA
injection
Q. 149 Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by:
A) Bacteria C) Fungus
B) Virus D)
Arthropod
Q. 150 Ascaris is which one of the following?
A) Ectoparasite C) Respiratory tract
parasite
B)
Intestinal parasite D)
Urnogenital tract parasite
Q. 151 Polymorphism is a feature exhibited by members of:
A)
Coelenterates C)
Porifera
B) Arthropoda D) Platyhelminthes
Q. 152 Which one of the following is the primary host of liver fluke?
A) Man C)
Snail
B)
Sheep D)
Dog
Q. 153 Which one of the following is free living carnivorous flatworm?
A) Liver fluke C) Tapeworm
B)
Dugesia D)
Schistosoma
Q. 154 The source of staple food for man are plants which belong to the
family:
A) Mimosaceae C) Rosaceae
B)
Poaceae D)
Fabaceae
Q. 155 In human, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of:
A) Calcium C)
Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K
Q. 156 The function of goblet cells is to secrete:
A) Gastrin C)
Pepsinogen
B) Hydrochloric acid D) Mucus
Q. 157 Gastric glands are made up of ______type of cells.
A) Two C)
Four
B)
Three D)
Five
Q. 158 HCl in gastric juice is secreted by which one of the following
cells?
A) Chief cells C) Mucous cells
B)
Oxyntic cells D)
Kupffer cells
Q. 159 Histamine is secreted by which one of the following cells?
A)
Basophils C)
Monocyte
B) Platelets D) Eosinophils
Q. 160 Which one of the following is the most numerous/ commonest of white
blood cells?
A) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes
Q. 161 The oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is transported by the:
A) Pulmonary artery C) Pulmonary vein
B) Coronary artery D) Hepatic artery
Q. 162 Which one of the following proteins takes part in blood clotting?
A) Prothrombin C) Immunoglobulin
B)
Fibrinogen D)
Globulin
Q. 163 Which one of the following is responsible for the production of
concentrated urine?
A)
Juxtamedullary nephrons C) Proximal tubule
B) Cortical nephrons D) Distal tubule
Q. 164 Reabsorption of useful constituents normally takes place in which
one of the following?
A)
Proximal tubule C)
Bowman’s capsule
B) Distal tubule D) Glomerulus
Q. 165 Which one of the following parts of excretory system in humans act
as counter current multiplier?
A) Kidney C)
Medulla
B) Cortex D) Loop of Henle
Q. 166 Anti-diuretic Hormone (ADH) is released from:
A) Anterior pituitary lobe C) Hypothalamus
B)
Posterior pituitary lobe D) Thalamus
Q. 167 Which one of the following is the main nitrogenous waste product in
humans?
A)
Urea C)
Salts
B) Ammonia D)
Uric acid
Q. 168 The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by a thick
band of nerve fibers called:
A) Medulla C)
Pons
B)
Corpus callosum D)
Hippocampus
Q. 169 The part of the brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and
maintains body position is called:
A) Cerebrum C)
Pons
B)
Cerebellum D)
Medulla
Q. 170 Which one of the following is the effect of sympathetic nervous
system?
A) Constriction of bronchi C) Promotes
digestion or peristalsis
B) Decrease in heart rate D) Dilates the pupil
Q. 171 High levels of aluminium may contribute to the onset of which one of
the following?
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Epilepsy D)
Gonorrhea
Q. 172 Testosterone is produced by which one of the following?
A) Sertoli cells C) Interstitial cells
B) Germinal epithelium D)
Spermatogonia
Q. 173 The oocyte released during ovulation is in:
A) Anaphase I C)
Metaphase I
B) Prophase I D) Metaphase II
Q. 174 Yellow glandular structure formed after the release of egg from
follicle is called:
A) Corpus callosum C) Corpus luteum
B) Graffian
follicle D)
Follicle atresia
Q. 175 On puberty, development of primary follicles is stimulated by:
A) ICSH C)
LH
B) FSH D)
Estrogen
Q. 176 Causative agent of a sexually transmitted disease that affects
mucous membrane of the urinogenital tract is:
A) Staphylococcus
aureus C) Neisseria gonorrhea
B) Treponema
pallidum D)
Escherichia coli
Q. 177 In a human vertebral column, the number of _____ vertebrae is 7.
A) Cervical C)
Lumbar
B) Thoracic D)
Sacrum
Q. 178 Which one of the following structure holds the bones together?
A) Joints C)
Fibrous capsules
B) Cartilages D) Ligaments
Q. 179 Which one of the following cartilages is the most abundant in human
body?
A) Elastic
cartilage C)
Fibrocartilage
B) Chondrous
cartilage D) Hyaline cartilage
Q. 180 The repeated protein pattern of myofibril is called:
A) Sarcomere C)
Sarcolemma
B) Zyomere D)
Cross bridges
Q. 181 When more energy is required in muscle contraction then that energy
can also be produced by _________ as a secondary source.
A) Glucose C)
Fructose
B) Phosphocreatin D)
Lactic acid
Q. 182 Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A) Glucagon C)
Epinephrin
B) Thyroxine D)
Oestrogen
Q. 183 The gonadotrophic hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary include:
A) Prolactin,
Thyroid stimulating hormone, Somatotrophin hormone
B) Follicle stimulating hormone, Luteinizing hormone,
Prolactin
C)
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone, Luteinizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Luteinizing
hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone, Thyroid stimulating hormone
Q. 184 Over activity of cortical hormone of adrenal gland causes:
A) Addison’s
disease C) Cushing’s disease
B) Parkinson’s
disease D)
Down’s syndrome
Q. 185 How many iodine atoms are present in thyroxine?
A) 3 C)
2
B) 4 D)
5
Q. 186 T-lymphocytes recognize antigen and attack microorganisms or
transplanted organ and tissues. This effect is called:
A) Cell mediated response C) Active immunity
B) Humoral immune
response D) Passive immunity
Q. 187 Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune
response?
A) Heavy part C)
Cosntant part
B) Light part D) Variable part
Q. 188 Which type of immunity is achieved by injecting antibodies,
antiserum, antivenome serum?
A) Active immunity C)
Artificially induced immunity
B) Passive immunity D)
Naturally induced immunity
Q. 189 Which one of the following glands is involved in the production of
lymphocytes?
A) Pineal C) Thymus
B) Pituitary D)
Adrenal
Q. 190 Antibodies are proteins and made up of how many polypeptide chains?
A) One C)
Three
B) Two D) Four
Q. 191 Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of:
A) Glucose C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
B) Fructose
6-phosphate D)
NADH
Q. 192 In one turn, the Kreb’s cycle produces one molecule of ATP, one
molecule of FADH2, and _______ molecule/s of NADH.
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D)
4
Q. 193 Which one of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for
oxygen is not essential?
A) Glycolysis C)
Kreb’s cycle
B) Pyruvate
oxidation D)
Electron transport chain
Q. 194 Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, moves from cytosol to
mitochondrial matrix where it is oxidized into _______ producing CO2
as a by-product.
A) Acetic acid (active) C) NAD
B) Citrate D) FAD
Q. 195
Pyruvate Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate Acetyl CoA
?
?
A) FAD+
→ FADH C)
NADH → NAH + H+
B) NAD+ → NADH D) FADH+ → FAD + H+
Q. 196 pBR322 have antibiotic resistant genes for:
A) Ampicillin
and aspirin C) Ampicillin and tetracycline
B)
Streptomycin and metronidazole D)
Penicillin and metronidazole
Q. 197 Cystic fibrosis affects which one of the following cells of the
body?
A) Epithelial cells C)
Plasma cells
B) Endothelial
cells D)
Blood cells
Q. 198 The enzymes which act as molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology:
A)
Exonucleases C)
Polymerases
B) Endonucleases D)
Reverse transcriptase
Q. 199 Which one of the following is a correct sequence of PCR?
A) Heating → Cooling → Add
Primer → Copying of strand
B) Heating → Add primer → Cooling →
Copying of strand
C) Add primer → Heating → Cooling → Copying
of strand
D) Cooling → Add primer → Heating →
Copying of strand
Q. 200 When two pieces of DNA are joined together, the result is which one
of the following?
A)
Complementary DNA C) Recombinant DNA
B) Mutated DNA D)
Cloned DNA
Q. 201 How many food chains are present in the following food web?
A) 5 C)
6
B) 3 D) 4
Q. 202 Which one of the following is the ultimate distributional unit
within which a species is restrained by the limitations of its physical
structure and physiology?
A) Niche C)
Ecosystem
B) Biome D)
Habitat
Q. 203 All herbivores belong to which trophic level in the food chain?
A) T1 C)
T3
B) T2 D)
T4
Q. 204 Individual successions are known as:
A) Primary
successions C) Seres
B) Secondary
successions D)
Xeroseres
Q. 205 The relationship in which one organism gets benefit and the other is
not affected is called:
A) Mutualism C)
Predation
B) Commensalism D) Parasitism
Q. 206 When a gene suppresses the effect of a gene at another locus, this
is called:
A) Epistasis C)
Complete dominance
B)
Co-dominance D)
Mutation
Q. 207 In male, the sex determining gene is:
A) XY C)
SXY
B) SRY D)
SXX
Q. 208 A gene which affects two or more unrelated characteristics is
called:
A) Pleiotropic C)
Dominant
B) Epistatic D)
Mutated
Q. 209 Position of an allele within a DNA molecule is:
A) Locus C)
Amplicon
B) Origin D)
Filial
Q. 210 Sickle cell anemia is a type of:
A) Insertion C)
Deletion
B)
Transposition D) Base substitution
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