Friday, 14 July 2017

MCAT paper 2017

MCAT Physics 2017

Q. 1          What is the output Boolean expression of logic diagram shown in figure below?

Q. 2          The stress-strain graph, deduced the following limits reach successively:
A) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yield limit
B) Proportional limit, yield limit, elastic limit
C) Yield limit, elastic limit, proportional limit
D) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yield limit
Q. 3          A 4.0 m long wire is subjected to stretching force and its length increase by 40cm. The percent elongation which the wire undergoes is
A) 0.10%                                                         C) 10.10%
B) 40.10%                                                       D) 20.10%
Q. 4          What is the value of universal gas constant?
A) 8314 Jmol–1 K–1                                          C) 831.4 Jmol–1 K–1
B) 83.14 Jmol–1 K–1                                         D) 8.314 Jmol–1 K–1
Q. 5          A gas sample contains three molecules each having speeds 1m/s, 2m/s and 3m/s. What is the mean square speed?
A) 14/3m/s                                                      C) 2m/s
B) 6m/s                                                            D)  
Q. 6          What is the factor upon which change in internal energy and ideal gas depends?
A) Change in volume                                      C) Change in temperature
B) Changed in volume and temperature         D) Path followed to change internal energy
Q. 7          What will be the mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics for a system whose variation of volume by pressure is shown?

A) Q = U                                                         C) Q = U/W
B) U = W                                                        D) Q = W
Q. 8          For a heat engine ‘A’ ratio of Q2 to Q1 is 2/3 while that of heat engine ‘B’, ratio of Q2 to Q1 is 1/3. What is the value of hA : hB?
A) 1:3                                                              C) 2:3
B) 1:2                                                              D) 2:1
Q. 9          Which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal wave form of voltage?
A) Voltage is connected to ‘x’ input and time
B) Voltage is connected to ‘y’ input and time base is switched off
C) Voltage is connected to ‘x’ input and time base is switched on
D) Voltage is connected to ‘y’ input and time base is switched on
Q. 10      Three resistance each having value ‘R’ are connected as shown in figure. What is the equivalent resistance between ‘X’ and ‘Y’?

A) R.                                                               C) 3R.
B) R/3.                                                            D) R3.
Q. 11      12 volt battery is applied across 6W resistance to have a steady flow of current. What must be the required potential difference across the same resistance to have a steady current of one amplere?
A) 12V.                                                           C) 1V
B) 3.V                                                             D) 6.V
Q. 12      What is the charge stored on a 5mF capacitor charged to the potential difference of 12V?
A) 60mC.                                                        C) 2.4mC.
B) 2.4C.                                                          D) 60.C
Q. 13      A solenoid is cut into two halves, magnetic induction due to same current in each life will be
A) Half of the original                                    C) Same as original
B) Double of the original                                D) Four times of the original
Q. 14      A long straight current carrying conductor has current direction from bottom to top when held vertically. What will be the direction of magnetic field lines when observed from below the conductor?
A) Clockwise                                                  C) Anticlockwise
B) Vertically upward                                      D) Vertically downward

Q. 15      The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current ‘I’, placed between the poles of a magnet:

In which direction does the force on the wire act?
A) Towards the ‘N’ pole of the magnet         C) Upwards
B) Downwards                                               D) Towards the ‘S’ pole of the magnet
Q. 16      X-rays from a given X-ray tube operating under specified conditions have a minimum wavelength. The value of this minimum wavelength could be reduced by
A) Cooling the target
B) Increasing the potential different between the cathode and the target
C) Reducing the temperature of the filament
D) Reducing the pressure in the tube
Q. 17      Helium-neon lasers are used for the
A) Precision measurement of range finding   C) Optical fiber communication system
B) Welding detached bone of body               D) Surveying for construction of tunnels
Q. 18      What is the type of characteristics X-ray photon whose energy is given by relation
‘hf = EM – Ex’?
A) K – alpha                                                   C) K – beta
B) M – alpha                                                   D) M – beta
Q. 19      Kinetics energy of electrons by applying potential difference V1 across the X-ray tube is KE1 while V2 potential difference produces kinetic energy equal to KE2. What will be value of KE1 : KE2 if ratio of potential difference V1:V2 = 2:3?
A) 3:2                                                              C) 9:4
B) 4:9                                                              D) 2:3
Q. 20      What will be the relation for the speed of electron accelerated towards the target in X-ray tube by applying potential difference ‘V’; take mass of electron ‘m’ and charge on electron ‘e’?

Q. 21      For what CAT stands in X-ray technology?
A) Capacitor Amplifier Transition                  C) Cathode Anode Technique
B) Computerized Axial Tomography             D) Current Amplification Transistor
Q. 22      During the production of LASER, when the excited state E2 contains number of atoms than the ground state E1, the state is known as:
A) Population inversion                                  C) Excited state
B) Ground state                                              D) Detestable state
Q. 23      Emission of radiation from radioactive substance is
A) Dependent on both temperature and pressure
B) Independent of temperature but dependent on pressure
C) Independent of both temperature and pressure
D) Independent of pressure but dependent on temperature
Q. 24                 Among the three types of radioactive radiation, which have strongest penetration power?
A) Alpha                                                         C) Beta
B) Gamma                                                       D) a, b and g have same penetration

Q. 25      Emission of alpha decay from a radioactive substance causes:
A) Decrease in ‘Z’ by 4 and decrease in ‘A’ by
B) Decreases in ‘A’ by 1 and ‘Z’ remains same
C) Decrease in ‘Z’ by 1 and ‘A” remains same
D) Decrease in ‘A’ by 4 and decrease in ‘Z’ by 2
Q. 26      Which one of the following emission takes place in a nuclear reaction?
90Th234 ® 91Pa234 + ------------
A) Alpha                                                         C) Beta
B) Gamma                                                       D) Photons
Q. 27      10 joule of energy is absorbed by 10 gram mass a radioactive source. What is the absorbed does?
A) 1 gray                                                         C) 10 gray
B) 1000 gray                                                   D) 100 gray
Q. 28      Isotopes are those nuclei of an element that have
A) Same mass number but different atomic number
B) Same mass number as well as atomic number
C) Different mass number as well as atomic number
D) Same atomic number but different mass number
Q. 29      In cloud chamber, the path of b-particles is
A) Straight, thick, short                                  C) Thin, wavy, longer
B) Thin, wavy, shorter,                                   D) Thin, straight, short
Q. 30      Name the quantity which can be measure by using base unit ‘kg m2 s – 3”:
A) Weight                                                       C) Power
B) Pressure                                                      D) Work
Q. 31      The wavelength ‘l’ of a wave depends on the speed ‘v’ of the wave and its frequency ‘f’. Decide which of the following is correct?
A)                                                         C)  
B)                                                        D)  
Q. 32      Ratio of moment of inertia of two object ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 2:3. Which of the following is the ratio of torques of ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively if both being rotated with constant angular acceleration?
A) 3:4                                                              C) 3:2
B) 2:3                                                              D) 4:3
Q. 33      Due to some mechanical fault, a lift falls freely from the top of a multistory building. Which of the followings is the apparent weight of a man inside the lift, it mass of man is 80kg while value of ‘g’ is 10 m/s2?
A) 900 N                                                         C) 800 N
B) Zero                                                            D) 700 N
Q. 34      Stokes’ Law is given by:

Q. 35      The product of cross sectional area of the pipe and the fluid speed at any point along the pipe:
A) Remains constant                                       C) Exponentially increases
B) Is zero                                                        D) Exponentially decreases
Q. 36      A small leak is developed in a large water storage tank. If the height of water above leakage is 10 m, then find the sped of efflux through the leak:
A) 14 m/sec                                                     C) 9.8 m/sec
B) 10 m/sec                                                     D) 20 m/sec
Q. 37      The minimum distance from the eye at which an object can be seen clearly without strain is called
A) Focal point                                                 C) Yield point
B) Near point                                                  D) Far point
Q. 38      In the diffraction of light round an obstacle, the angle of diffraction is increased when:
A) The wavelength of incident light wave is decreased
C) The wavelength of incident light wave is increased
B) The amplitude of the incident light wave is increased
D) The amplitude of the incident light wave is decreased
Q. 39      An object 15 cm from a lens produces a real image 30cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
A) + 15cm                                                       C) +10cm
B) +20cm                                                        D) +25cm
Q. 40      What si the formula for critical angle in case of light through two medium having refractive indexes n1 and n2 such that n1>n2?

Q. 41      In a simple Harmonic Motion with a radius ‘Xo’, the velocity of the particle at any point is:

Q. 42      For vibrating mass-spring system, the expression of kinetic energy at any displacement ‘x’ is given by:

Q. 43      Speed of sound through a gas is measured as 340 m/s at pressure P1 and temperature T1. What will be the speed of sound if pressure of gas is doubled but temperature is kept constant?
A) 342 m/s                                                      C) 170 m/s
B) 340 m/s                                                       D) 680 m/s

MCAT Chemistry

Q. 45      In the figure given below, the electron flow in external circuit is form:

A) Zinc to copper electrode                            C) Right to left
B) Copper to zinc electrode                            D) porous partition to zinc electrode
Q. 46      Which one of the following as a redox reaction?
A) NaCl + AgNO3 ® NaNO3 + AgCl2          C) 2Na+Cl2®2NaCl
B) 2Cl-®Cl2+2e-                                            D) Na+ + 1e- ® Na
Q. 47      The chemical substance, when dissolved in water, gives “H+” is called:
A) Neutral                                                       C) Base
B) Acid                                                           D) Amphoteric
Q. 48      The ‘pH’ of our blood is:
A) 6.7 - 8                                                         C) 7.5
B) 7.9                                                              D) 7.35 – 7.4
Q. 49      In zero order reaction, the rate is independent of:
A) concentration of the product                     C) concentration of the reactant
B) Temperature of the reaction                       D) Surface area of the product

Q. 51      What is the trend of melting and boiling points of the elements of short periods as we move from left to right in a periodic table?
A) Melting and boiling points decrease gradually
B) Melting and boiling points first decrease then increase
C) Melting and boiling points increase gradually
D) Melting and boiling points first increase then decrease
Q. 52      Along a period, atomic radius decreases. This gradual decrease in radius is due to:
A) Increase in number of shells                      C) Increase in number of protons in the nucleus
B) Melting and boiling points first decrease then increase    
D) Melting and boiling points first increase then decrease
Q. 53      Alkaline earth metal oxides react with water to give hydroxides. The solubility of alkaline earth metal oxides in water increases as we move from top to bottom in a group, which of the following alkaline earth metal oxides is least soluble in water?
A) BaO                                                           C) MgO
B) SrO                                                             D) CaO
Q. 54      The electronic structure of carbon monoxide is represented as
A)                                                    C)
B)                                                     D)
Q. 55      Which one pair has the same oxidation state of ‘Fe’?
A) FeSO4 and FeCl3                                       C) FeCl2 and FeCl3
B) FeSO4 and FeCl2                                        D) Fe2 (SO4)3 and FeSO4.
Q. 56      Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ in K3[Fe(CN)6 ] is:
A) +2                                                               C) -6
B) -3                                                                D) +3
Q. 57      The nature of an aqueous solution of ammonia (NH2) is
A) Amphoteric                                                C) Neutral
B) Basic                                                          D) Acidic
Q. 58      Unpolluted rain water has a pH of:
A) 4.9                                                              C) 5.6
B) 5.3                                                              D) 7.0
Q. 59      In comparison with oxygen gas, a strong triple bond is present between two nitrogen atoms in a molecule and therefore nitrogen gas is:
A) Highly reactive gas                                    C) Completely inert like noble gases
B) Very less reactive gas                                 D) Moderately reactive gas
Q. 60      The catalyst used in the Haber’s process is
A) Iron crystals with metal oxide promoters  C) Aluminium oxide
B) Magnesium oxide                                       D) Silicon dioxide
Q. 61      The cis-isomerism is shown by

Q. 62      Select a nucleophile from the following examples
A) N+H4.                                                         C) NH3
B) NO2                                                            D) NO+2
Q. 63      The introduction of an alkyl group in benzene takes place in the presence of AlCl3 and:

Q. 64      What is the product formed when propene reacts with HBr?

Q. 65      The order fo reactivity of alkyl halides towards nucleophile is
A) RI>RBr>RF>RCl                                      C) RI>RBr>RCl>RF
B) RF>RBr>RCl>RI                                      D) RF>RCl>RBr>RI

Q. 67      Consider the following reaction
C2H5OH + PCl5 ®?
What product (s) may be formed?

A) C2H5Cl, POCl3 and HCl                            C) C2H5Cl and HCl
B) C2H5Cl only                                               D) C2H5Cl and POCl3

Q. 75      Methyl cyanides, on boiling with mineral acids or alkalles, yield:
A) Butanoic acid                                             C) Formic acid
B) Acetic acid                                                 D) Propanoic acid
Q. 76      The formation or ester from acetic acid in presence of acid and ethanol is a:
A) Nucleophilic addition reaction                  C) Nucleophilic substation reaction
B) Electrophonic substitution reaction           D) electrophonic addition reactio.
Q. 77      What is the name of amino acid,  where ‘R’ is CH3 group?
A) Glycline                                                     C) Aspartic acid
B) Lyslne                                                        D) Alanine
Q. 78      a-amino acids are compounds having carboxylic acid as well as amino functional groups attached to:
A) Any H-atom in the molecule                     C) Alternate carbon atoms
B) Same carbon atom                                      D) Neighboring carbon atoms

Q. 79      The formula of ‘zwitterion’ is represented by

Q. 80      Two or more amino acids condensed to form protein by a peptide linkage which is present between two atoms:
A) C and C                                                     C) O and C
B) C and N                                                     D) C and H
Q. 81      The amino acids which largely exist in dipolar ionic form are
A) Acidic amino acids                                    C) Beta amino acids
B) Basic amino acids                                      D) Alpha amino acids
Q. 82      If 18.0 grams of glucose is dissolved in 1 Kg of water, boiling point of this solution should be
A) 100.52oC                                                    C) 100.00oC
B) 100.052oC                                                  D) Less than 100oC
Q. 83      Molal freezing point constant of water is:
A) 0.52                                                            C) 2.86
B) 1.86                                                            D) 11.86

Q. 85      Polyvinyl acetate (PVA) is colourless and non-toxic resin used as an adhesive and as a binder for making
A) Emulsion paints                                         C) Gramophone recorders
B) Toys                                                           D) Compact discs
Q. 86      Both ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharides containing _____ carbon atoms.
A) Four                                                           C) Five
B) Six                                                              D) Seven
Q. 87      The increased quantities of cholesterol in blood make plaque like deposits in the arteries causing
A) Cholera                                                      C) Down’s syndrome
B) Heart attack                                               D) Phenylketonuria
Q. 88      Polyvinyl chloride is an example of
A) Condensation polymer                               C) Addition polymer
B) Biopolymer                                                D) Thermosetting polymer
Q. 89      Collagen is a fibrous protein present most abundantly in
A) Arteries                                                      C) Nall
B) Hair                                                            D) Tendons
Q. 90      Animals store glucose in the form of glycogen in
A) Liver and muscles                                      C) Mouth
B) Stomach                                                     D) Small intestine
Q. 91      The yellowishbrown color in photochemical smog is due to the presence of
A) SO2 (sulphur dioxide)                                C) CO2 (carbon dioxide)
B) CO (carbon monoxide)                              D) NO2 (nitrogen dioxide)
Q. 92      Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter i.e. glucose by bacteria in watr sediments produce
A) Propane                                                      C) Ethane
B) Methane                                                     D) Butane
Q. 93      A sample of Neon is found to exist as 20Ne, 21Ne. Mass spectrum of ‘Ne’ is as follows:

what is the relative atomic mass (Ar value) or Neon?
A) 20.18                                                          C) 20.10
B) 20.28                                                          D) 20.22
Q. 94      Hydrogen burns in chlorine to produce hydrogen chloride. The ratio of masses of reactants in chemical reaction H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl is:
A) 2:35.5                                                         C) 1:35.5
B) 1:71                                                            D) 2:70
Q. 95      The coordination number of Na+ in NaCl crystal is:
A) 6.                                                                C) 4.
B) 2.                                                                D) 8.
Q. 96      There are four gases H2, He, N2 and CO2 at 0oC. Which gas shown greater non-ideal behavior?
A) He                                                              C) H2
B) CO2                                                            D) N2
Q. 97      Correct order of energy in the given sub-shells is:
A) 5s>3d>3p>4s                                             C) 3p>3d>5s>4s
B) 5s>3d>4s>3p                                             D) 3p>3d>4s>5s
Q. 98      Number of electrons in the outermost shell of chloride ion(Cl-) is:
A) 17                                                               C) 1
B) 7                                                                 D) 8

Q. 99      According to Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory, the repulsive forces between the electron pairs of central atom of a molecule are in the order:
A) Lone pair bond pair> Lone pair-Lone
B) Bond pair> Bond pair> Lion pair-Lone pair> Lone pair-Bond pair
C) Lone pair-Bond pair> Bond pair-Bond pair> Lone pair>Lone pair.
D) Lone pair-Lone pair>Lone pair-Bond pair>Bond pair-Bond pair
Q. 100  In crystal lattice of ice, each O-atom of water molecule is attached to
A) Four H-atoms                                             C) Two H-atoms
B) One H-atom                                               D)  Three H-atoms
Q. 101  Heart of formation (DHot) for CO2 is:
A) -390 KJ/mole                                             C) +394 KJ/mole
B) -394 KJ/mole                                              D) -294 KJ/mole
Q. 102  Reactants have high energy than products in:
A) Endothermic reactions                               C) Exothermic reactions
B) Photochemical reactions                            D) Non-spontaneous reactions

Total MCQs: 220                                                                                           Max. Marks: 1100
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 150 Minutes

Q. 103  He. ______________the day they had bought such a large house.
A) Hues                                                           C) Dues
B) Rows                                                          D) Rues
Q. 104  Indolence gives vent to ___________disposition in human life.
A) Energetic                                                    C) Static
B) Enthuslastic                                                D) Filthy
Q. 105  The Quaid’s __________enthusiansm led the Muslims of Indo-Pak to independence
A) Onerous                                                     C) Latent
B) Simplified                                                  D) Threatening
Q. 106  He _____the incident to the back of his mind.
A) Revered                                                     C) Regulated
B) Relegated                                                   D) Regalated
SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response form.
Q. 107  The old man was sitting quite bamboozled when the swindler deprived him from his pension money by his evil tricks..
A) quite                                                          C) from
B) by                                                               D) evil
Q. 108  The prime minister fired a broadside at the opposition leaders. A few of his remarks were not up at the mark.
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)
Q. 109  Amjad was not conscious to the aberration he had committed in the public meeting. It was disliked by all and sundry.
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)
Q. 110  Late Agha Shahi was an outstanding genlus in the international Affairs. He was gifted of the acumen to judge the future events in advance.
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)
Q. 111  Lucy is the diva which performance as an opera singer is peerless.
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)
Q. 112  The police report exonerated Anwar of all charges of corruption and his job was also restored.
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q. 113   
A) His addled brain refuse to think clearly and solve the problem.  
B) His addle brain refused to think clearly and solve the problem.
C) His addled brain refused to think clearly and solve the problem.
D) His addle brain refuse to think clearly and solve the problem.
Q. 114   
A) The children had loomed while their stay on the farm.    
B) The children had bloomed on their stay during the farm.
C) The children had bloomed during their stay on the farm.
D) The children had bloomed on their stay on the farm.
Q. 115   
A) I should had business acumen                   C) I should has business acumen
B) I should may business acumen.                  D) I should had business acumen
Q. 116   
A) We should pay maximum accolade to our national heroes
B) Do anybody knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse  latitudes?
C) We should pay maximum accolade in our national heroes.
D) We should pay maximum accolade from our national heroes.
Q. 117   
A) Does any bodys knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes?
B) Do any body knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes?
C) Does any body knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes?
D) Does any body know why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes?
Q. 118   
A) Shelley is consider to be an idealist poet  
B) Shelley si considered to be an idealist poet.
C) Shelley is considering to be an idealist poet.
D) Shelley is considers to be an idealist poet.
Q. 119   
A) Pakistan cricket team forged the impregnable lead.
B) Pakistan cricket team forged on impregnable lead.
C) Pakistan cricket team forged against impregnable lead.
D) Pakistan cricket team forged an impregnable lead.
Q. 120  A) A person whose job involves calculating insurance risks and payments for insurance companies by studying how frequently fires, accidents, death etc. happen is called an actuary.
B) A person which job involves calculating insurance risks and payments for insurance companies by studying how frequently fires, accidents, death etc. happy is called an actuary.
C) A person who job involves calculating insurance risks and payments for insurance companies by studying how frequently fires, accidents, death etc. happen is called an actuary.
D) A person whose job involves calculating insurance risks and payments for insurance companies by studying how frequently fires, accidents, death etc. happen are called an actuary.
Q. 121   
A) No one is casting aspersions to you
B) No one is casting aspersions at you
C) No one is casting aspersions on you
D) No one is casting aspersions with you.
Q. 122   
A) This is one of the bifurcated road             
B) This is one of them bifurcated road
C) This si one off the bifurcated roads
D) This is oen of the bifurcated roads.
In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the Nearest Correct Meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
A) Inequality                                                   C) Wickedness
B) Injustice                                                     D) Efficacy
A) Partial                                                         C) Spirited
B) Adventurous                                              D)  Inflexible
A) Ridicule                                                     C) Gratification
B) Irk                                                              D) Lacerate
A) Heroic                                                        C) Odious
B) Humorous                                                  D) Huge
A) Intimate                                                     C) Licentious
B) Illegal                                                         D) Limited
Q. 128  MOTIF
A) Design                                                        C) Stiff
B) Tough                                                         D) Motion
A) Stimulate                                                    C) Instigate
B) Instill                                                          D) Calculate
A) Objectify                                                    C) Amalgamate
B) Modify                                                       D) Fascinate
A) Annihilate                                                  C) Obscure
B) Sanctify                                                      D) Oplate
A) Empathy                                                    C) Mallgning
B) Hostillty                                                     D) Management

MCAT Biology

Q. 133  The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, cause changes in enzyme structure is known as:
A) Lock and key model                                  C) Induce fit model
B) Sliding filament model                              D) Specificity model
Q. 134  All coenzymes are derived from
A) Proteins                                                      C) Nucleic acids
B) Vitamins                                                     D) Carbohydrates
Q. 135  Reverse transcriptase is used to make DNA copies of
A) Host RNA                                                 C) Viral DNA
B) Host DNA                                                 D) Viral RNA
Q. 136  Antibiotics are produced by fungi and certain bacteria of group
A) Oomycetes                                                 C) Actinomycetes
B) Ascomycetes                                              D)Basidiomycetes
Q. 137  Which statement about bacteria is true?
A) Gram positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
B) Lipids are absent in cell wall of both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
C) Both have equal amount of lipids
D) Gram negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
Q. 138  Fungi which cause thrush in humans are
A) Lovastain                                                   C) Sacromyces
B) Aspergillus fumigatus                                D)Candidiasls
Q. 139  When beef which is not properly cooked is consumed by humans, they may become infected by
A) Hook worm                                                C) Tape worm
B) Pin worm                                                    D) Round worm
Q. 140  Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by
A) Anopheles                                                  C) Trypanosoma
B) Aedes                                                         D) Plasmodium
Q. 141  Schistosoma is a parasite that lives in the ________of its host.
A) Liver                                                          C) Intestine
B) Blood                                                         D) Kidney
Q. 142  The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is
A) Pseudocoelom                                            C) Coelom
B) Acoelom                                                     D) Gastrovascular cavity
Q. 143  The layer which forms the lining of digestive tract and glands of digestive system is
A) Endoderm                                                  C) Hesoderm
B) Ectoderm                                                   D) Mesoglea
Q. 144  Which one of the following vitamins is produced by the microflora of large intestine?
A) Vitamin D                                                  C) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin K                                                  D) Vitamin A
Q. 145  _______is activated to ________-, by enterokinase / enteropeptidase enzyme secreted by the lining of duodenum.
A) Trypsinegen, trypsin                                  C) Pepsinogen, trypsin
B) Pepsinogen, pepsin                                     D) Chymotrypsinogen, chymotrypsin

Q. 146  Which of the followings are absorbed in the large intestine?
A) Water and peptones                                   C) Water and saits
B) Salts and glycerol                                       D) Amino acids and sugars
Q. 147  Saliva is basically composed of water, mucus, amylase and
A) Sodium hydroxide                                     C) Sodium bicarbonate
B) Hydrocarbons                                            D) Sodium chloride
Q. 148  The total inside capacity of the lung is _______for men
A) 7 liters                                                        C) 6-7 liters
B) 5 liters                                                        D) 2.5 liters
Q. 149  The average life span of red blood cell is about
A) Two month                                                C) One month
B) Five months                                               D) Four months
Q. 150  The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into the blood stream at the
A) Bile duct                                                    C) Subclavian vein
B) abdominal vein                                           D) Jugular vein
Q. 151  Right atrium is separated from right ventricle by
A) Semilunar valve                                         C) Bicuspid valve
B) Tricuspid valve                                           D) Septum
Q. 152  Site of fitration in nephrons is
A) Proximal end and distal end                      C) Loop of Henle
B) Ascending arm and descending arm          D) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
Q. 153  Antidiuretic hormone increases the reabsorption of
A) Water                                                         C) Salts
B) Amino acids                                               D) Ammonia
Q. 154  Active uptake of ________in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is promoted by the action of Aldosterone
A) K+                                                              C) Cl-
B) Na+                                                             D) Ca++
Q. 155  The process through which the body maintains its internal environment from the fluctuations of external environment is called as
A) Homeostasis                                               C) Adaptation
B) Behavioru fo organisms                             D) Thermoregulation
Q. 156  Active pumping out of Na+ occurs at which part of enthrone?
A) Proximal tubdle                                         C) Descending limb of loop of Henle
B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle              D) Collecting duct
Q. 157  The structures which respond when they are stimulated by limpulse coming through motor neuron are
A) Effectors                                                    C) Responsers
B) Receptors                                                   D) Transductrs
Q. 158  Thalamus and cerebrum are the part of
A) Spinal cord                                                 C) Hind brain
B) Forebrain                                                    D) Mid brain
Q. 159  There is also evidence that high levels of ___________may contribute to the onset of Aizheimer’s disease
A) Ca                                                              C) Mo
B) Mg                                                              D) Al
Q. 160  L-dopa or levodopa is used to get some relief from
A) Epiliepsy                                                    C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease                                    D) Dementla
Q. 161  Spermatogonia differentiate directly into
A) Secondary spermatocytes                          C) Primary spermatocytes
B) Spermatozoa                                              D)  Spermatids
Q. 162  Treponema pallidum causes
A) Gonorrhea                                                  C) Genital Herpes
B) AIDS                                                         D) Syphills

Q. 163  What is the location of interstitial cells in testis?
A) Inside the seminiferous tubules                 C) Between the seminiferous tubules
B) Among germinal epithelial cells                 D) Around the tests
Q. 164  A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone are called
A) Sertoli cells                                                C) Germ cells
B) Spermatocytes                                            D) Interstitial cells
Q. 165  The hormone produced from corpus luteus is
A) Prolactin                                                     C) Progesterone
B) Follicle stimulating hormone                      D) Leuteinizing hormone
Q. 166  The length of the myofibril from one z-band to the next is described as
A) Sarcolemma                                               C) Muscle fibre
B) Sarcoplasm                                                 D) Sarcomere
Q. 167  The calcium ions released during a muscle fibre contraction attach with
A) Troponin                                                    C) Actin
B) Myosin                                                       D) Tropomyosin
Q. 168  The joint that allows the movements is several direction is called
A) Hinge joint                                                 C) Gllding joint
B) Ball and socket joint                                  D) Fibrous joint
Q. 169  Where can we find H-zone in the figure of fine structure fo skeletal muscle’s myofibril?
A) In the mid of “A-band”.                            C) Besides the “Z-line”
B) In “I-band”.                                               D) Along the “I-band”.
Q. 170  First vertebra of cervical region of vertebral column is known as
A) Axis                                                           C) Thoracic
B) Sacral                                                         D) Atlas
Q. 171  Chemically, insulin and glucagon are
A) Carbohydrates                                           C) Uplds
B) Proteins                                                      D) Nucleic acids
Q. 172  Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary and which control the secretions of hormones of other endocrine glands are known as
A) Release factor                                            C) Accelerator
B) Inhibitor                                                     D) Tropic or trophic hormone
Q. 173  Alpha (a) cells of islets of Langerhans secrete hormone called
A) Glucocorticold                                           C) Glucagon
B) Insulin                                                        D) Aldosterone
Q. 174  Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone?
A) Glucose ® Lipids                                      C) Glucose ® Glycogen
B) Glucose ® Proteins                                   D) Glycogen ® Glucose
Q. 175  In passive immunity which of the following components are injected into the body?
A) Immunoglobulin’s                                      C) Immunogens
B) Antigens                                                     D) Saliva
Q. 176  Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response?
A) Heavy part                                                 C) Light part
B) Variable part                                              D) Constant part
Q. 177  Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains in antibody molecule are linked by:
A) Disulfide (S-S) bridges                              C) Glycosidic bond
B) Peptide bond                                              D) Ionic bond
Q. 178  In the structural diagram of an antibody molecule which portion is occupied by variable chains?
A) Lower region                                             C) Middle region
B) Upper region                                              D) In between chains
Q. 179  Antibodies are produced against invading cells by
A) Lymphocytes                                             C) Basophils
B) Eosinophils                                                 D) Neutrophilis

Q. 180  Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?
A) Phytol                                                        C) Pyrrole
B) Porphyrin ring                                            D) Thylakold membrane
Q. 181  A biochemical process which occurs within a cell to breakdown complex compounds to produce energy is called
A) Respiration                                                 C) Oxidation reduction
B) Photosynthesis                                           D) Photophosphorylation
Q. 182  The end product of anaerobic respoiration in humans and other animals is
A) Pyruvic acid                                               C) Lactic acid
B) Ethanol                                                       D) Glucose
Q. 183  Final acceptor of electrons in respoiratory chain is
A) Cytochrome-A                                           C) Cytochrome-A3.
B) Oxygen                                                      D) Cytochrome-C
Q. 184  Every molecule of NADH fed into electron transport chain produces
A) 6 ATP                                                        C) 4 ATP
B) 2 ATP                                                         D) 3 ATP
Q. 185  The DNA molecule formed from mRNA by reverse transcriptase is called
A) Recombinant DNA                                    C) Plasmid DNA
B) Chimaeric DNA                                         D) Complementary DNA
Q. 186  The agent which separates the two strands of DNA is PCR is
A) DNA ligase                                                C) Primer
B) Heat                                                           D) Hellcase
Q. 187  Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of
A) Na+ion                                                        C) Cl-ions
B) Ca+2ions                                                     D) K+ions
Q. 188  The phage commonly used as a vector in genetic engineering is
A) Gamma phage                                            C) T4-phage
B) T2-phage                                                     D) Lambda phage
Q. 189  Restriction endonucleases are naturally occurring enzymes of
A) Viruses                                                       C) Plants
B) Fungi                                                          D) Bacteria
Q. 190  In an ecosystem mycorrhiza is an example of
A) Predation                                                   C) Symblosis
B) Mutualism                                                  D) Parasltism
Q. 191  As a result of destruction of ozone layer, there is significant increase in
A) Green house gases                                     C) Sulphur oxide
B) Nitrogen oxide                                           D) Ultraviolet radiation
Q. 192  Higher rate of biological activity in a nutrient rich pond water is called
A) Land pollution                                           C) Air pollution
B) Eutrophication                                           D) Industrial effluents
Q. 193  Living part of ecosystem is
A) Community                                                C) Hydroshphere
B) Lithosphere                                                D) Deteritus
Q. 194  A close association between two living organisms of different species which is beneficial to both partners is called
A) Predation                                                   C) Parasitism
B) Commensalism                                           D) Mutualism
Q. 195  The structures which are reduced during the course of evolution and have no apparent functions are called:
A) Regenerated organs                                   C) Vestigial organs
B) Saltatory organs                                         D) Useless organs
Q. 196  When a gene suppresses the effect of another gene at another locus, the phenomenon is termed as:
A) Over-mutation                                           C) Plelotropy
B) Epistasis                                                     D) Co-dominance

Q. 197  Phenylketonuria is example of
A) Point mutation                                           C) Translocation
B) Polyploidy                                                  D) inversion
Q. 198  A situation in which one gene affects two or more unrelated characteristics is called
A) Epistasis                                                     C) Plelotropy
B) Dominance relation                                    D) Polygenes
Q. 199  The mutation which causes change in sequence of DNA is called
A) Chromosomal mutation                             C) Inversion
B) Deletion                                                     D) Point mutation
Q. 200  The smallest independent unit of life is known as a
A) Cell                                                            C) Chloroplast
B) Bacterial colony                                         D) DNA
Q. 201  The plants having foreign DNa incorporated into their cells are called
A) Clonal plants                                              C) Transgenic plant
B) Biotech plants                                            D) Tissue cultured plants
Q. 202  Pasteurization technique is widely used tor preservation of
A) Water                                                         C) Meat
B) Milk products                                             D) Vaccines
Q. 203  The production of genetically identical copies of organisms by asexual reproduction is called
A) Genetic engineering                                   C) Integrated disease management
B) Cloning                                                      D) Hydrophonic culture technique
Q. 204  The _____--model of plasma membrane suggests that proteins are embedded in lipid bilayer
A) Unit membrane                                          C) Ultracentrifuge
B) Permeable                                                   D) Fluid mosaic
Q. 205   The function of nucleolus is to make
A) rDNA                                                         C) Ribosomes
B) RNA                                                          D) Chromosomes
Q. 206  Lipid metabolism is the function of
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum                 C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) Mitochondria                                             D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q. 207  The enzymes of Lysosomes are synthesized on
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum                 C) Chloroplast
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum                   D) Golgi apparatus
Q. 208  Centrioles are made up of _______microtubules
A) 9                                                                 C) 12
B) 3                                                                 D) 27
Q. 209  Which of the following structures is absent in higher plants and found in animal cells?
A) Cytoskeleton                                              C) Centriole
B) Mitochondria                                             D) Cytoplasm
Q. 210  The soluble part of the cytoplasm or fluid that remains when all organelles are removed is known as
A) Cytosol                                                      C) Gelatin material
B) Solution                                                      D) Cytoplasm
Q. 211  The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is at places continuous with the
A) Golgl apparatus                                          C) Endoplasmic reticulalum
B) Lysozymes                                                 D) Peroxisomes
Q. 212  The process by which unwanted structures within the cell are engulfed and digested within lysosome is known as
A) Endocytosis                                               C) Exocytosis
B) Autophage                                                 D) Hydrolysis
Q. 213  Down’s syndrome is a result of non-disjunction of _______pair of chromosomes that fails to segregate
A) 22nd                                                            C) 14th
B) 18th                                                             D) 21st
Q. 214   ________________is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature
A) Cellulose                                                    C) Glycerol
B) Waxes                                                        D) Starch
Q. 215  Which of the following is a keto sugar?
A) Glyceraldehyde                                         C) Dihydroxy acetone
B) Ribose                                                        D) Glucose
Q. 216  Amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen is
A) Alanine                                                      C) Valine
B) Leucine                                                      D) Glycine
Q. 217  Acylglycerols like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between
A) Fatty acids and water                                C) Fatty acids and alcohol
B) Fatty acids and glucose                             D) Fatty acids and phosphates
Q. 218  Which of the following is a purine
A) Cytosine                                                     C) Uracil
B) Thymine                                                     D) Guanine
Q. 219  If the cofactor is covalently or tightly and permanently bonded to enzyme then it will be called
A) Coenzyme                                                  C) Apoenzyme
B) Activator                                                    D) Prosthetic group
Q. 220  Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is
A) 4.50                                                            C) 9.00

B) 7.60                                                            D) 2.00

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