Tuesday, 12 September 2017

NUMS test 2017 solved


FULL LENGTH PAPER
AS PER PATTERN
Total MCQs: 220
Max. Marks: 1100                                                                             Time Allowed: 150 Minute
PHYSICS

Q.1            The dimensions for angular displacement is

A) [L-1]                                                            C) [L]
B) [T]                                                              D) Dimensionless


Q.2            Which of the following is not a S.I. base quantity

A) Mass                                                           C) Velocity
Cruise shipB) Intensity of light                                        D) Length

Q.3            Which of the following objects have every point on its surface equidistant from its centre of weight (centre of gravity):

A) An egg                                                       C) A table tennis ball
B) A cubic box                                                D) A triangle

Q.4            Which of the following statements is false

A) The centre of gravity of a rectangular plate is at the point of intersection of its diagonals
B) The centre of gravity of a thin uniform rod is halfway along the rod
C) The centre of gravity of a square plate is at the point of its balance

D) The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at one of its vertices

Q.5            Ideal fluid is

A) Incompressible                                           C) Non – viscous
B) Steady flow                                               D) All of these

Q.6            A fluid entering a pipe from a point of larger cross section and exits from the point of the same pipe having smaller cross section. Its pressure energy at the exit would

A) Decrease because of high velocity
B) Increase because of high velocity
C) Remains the same as inlet pressure
D) Increases because of low velocity

Q.7            What do you infer from the Bernoulli’s equation:

A) This theorem is valid only for the turbulent flow of the fluid
B) Where the speed of the fluid is high, the pressure would be low
C) Where the speed is high, the pressure would be low
D) All of the above

Q.8            The value of absolute zero on Fahrenheit scale:

A) 359.4oF                                                      C) 100oF
B) -459.4oF                                                     D) -259.4oF
Q.9            1 Sv is equal to
(A) 0.01 rem                                                    (B) 100 rem               
(C) 1 rad                                                         (D) 0.01 Gy

Q.10        The normal temperature of a human body on centigrade scale is:

A) 98.6o                                                                              C) 37o
B) 40o                                                                                  D) 459.4o

Q.11        In S.H.M the K.E at the equilibrium position is:

A) Zero as the acceleration is zero
B) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero
C) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero
D) Maximum as the velocity is maximum

Q.12        Maximum acceleration with zero velocity is possible only for:

A) Non inertial frame of reference                 C) Simple harmonic motion
B) Rotational motion                                      D) Random motion

Q.13        When a source is moving towards a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency will be:

A) Greater than the original frequency      C) Smaller than the original frequency
B) Remains the same as that of original frequency      D) None of the above

Q.14        A technique for detecting the pressure of objects under water by acoustical echo is called

A) Doppler effect                                           C) Radar
B) Sonar                                                         D) Red shift
Q.15        Two unequal resistances are connected parallel across a battery. Which of the following statement is true?
             A) Same current will flow through both resistances.
             B) Current through smaller resistance is higher.
             C) Current through larger resistance is higher.
             D) Current can be higher in any resistance depending on emf of the cell.

Q.16        If the waves interfere constructively, the amplitude of the resulting wave would be:

A) Less than either of the individual wave
B) Greater than either of the individual wave
C) Equal to the shortest of the individual waves
D) Equal to the greatest of the individual wave

Q.17        Thin film of oil on water shows colour pattern when illuminated by white light due to

A) Interference                                              C) Polarization
B) Dispersion                                                  D) Scattering

Q.18        Monochromatic light means the light having:

A) One colour                                                 C) Single wavelength
B) Single frequency                                        D) All of above

Q.19        If two or more resistors are joined side by side, this combination is called:

A) Series combination of resistors                  C) Y delta combination of resistors   
B) Parallel combination of resistors D) None of the above

Q.20        Which of the following quantities remain the same in/across the resistors connected in series Combination?

A) Charge flow                                               C) Both of the above
B) Current                                                     D) Voltage
Q.21        What is voltage across RL is the given circuit

A) 3.6 V                                                          C) 12 V
B) 6.3 V                                                          D) 10V

Q.22        The strength of the magnetic field outside a solenoid is weak because:

A) Lines of force are quite far from each other
B) The lines of force are in the same direction and tend to cancel out the effect of each other
C) The lines of force are opposite to each other and tend to cancel out the effect of each other
D) Both a and c are correct

Q.23        The direction of magnetic field as given by Fleming’s rule for the solenoid is along:

A) Normal to the solenoid                              C) Can’t be taken
B) The axis of the solenoid                           D) None of the above

Q.24                    The direction of magnetic field at a point on the magnetic lines of force can be taken along:

A) Normal at that point                                  C) The tangent at that point
B) Axis of the magnetic line of force at that point       D) Perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid

Q.25        Shear stress addresses to the:

A) Volume changes due to the applied stress C) Shape changes due to the applied stress
B) Length changes due to the applied stress  D) All of the above

Q.26        The substances undergoing plastic deformation until they break are known as

A) Brittle substances                                       C) Elastic substances
B) Ductile substances                                    D) Plastic substances
Q.27        Which of the following will represent OR gate

Q.28        Energy of the electromagnetic radiation is far more than 1.02 MeV. The dominant process will be

A) photoelectric effect                                    C) materialization of energy
B) Compton scattering                                    D) all are equally probable

Q.29        The target in the X ray unit is given a:

A) Zero potential                                            C) Low negative potential
B) High negative potential                              D)  positive potential

Q.30        X rays are similar in nature to:

A) Cathode rays                                              C) Gamma rays
B) Canal rays                                                  D) Beta rays

Q.31        The velocity of X rays is equal to that of:

A) Speed of sound                                          C) Speed of  a-particles
B) Speed of electron                                       D) Speed of light and γ-rays

Q.32        X rays are affected by:

A) Electric field only                                      C) Electric and magnetic field
B) Magnetic field only                                    D) None of these

Q.33        The penetrating power of X rays increases with:

A) Decrease in velocity                                   C) Increase in velocity
B) Increase in frequency                              D) Decrease in their intensity
Q.34        Q.31    Display in CRO would be stationary if input signal and saw tooth signal have same
A) Time period                                              C) Both “A” and “B”
B) Voltage                                                      D) Amplitude

Q.35        Kα characteristic X rays are produced due to the transition of electrons:

A) From M to L shell                                      C) From L to K shell
B) From N to M shell                                      D) From K to L shell

Q.36        Name of the atom not used for tracer:

A) Na-34                                                         C) C-14
B) I-131                                                          D) C-12
Q.37        Which one is more energetic x-ray
(a) Kα x-ray                                                      (b) Kβ x-ray                

(c) Kγ x-ray                                                    (d) all kind of x-rays have same energy


Q.38         The characteristic x-rays appear as discrete lines on a

A) Discrete spectrum                                      C) Band spectrum
B) Continuous spectrum                               D) All of these

Q.39        A detector which can count fast and operate at low voltages is

A) G.M. counter                                             C) Wilson could chamber
B) Solid state detector                                   D) Bubble chamber

Q.40        Biological effect of radiation depends upon

A) Ionization power of radiation                    C) Both “A” and “B”
B) Nature of part of body                               D) Nature of material emitting the radiation

Q.41        The unit of the rate of absorption of a radiation to have the same biological effects on different parts of the human body is called a:

A) roentgen                                                     C) rad
B) rem                                                            D) curie
Q.42        A method of recording and producing three dimensional image is named as
(A) interference                                               (B) diffraction
(C) holography                                              (D) topography

Q.43        Pressure of a gas is:

A) Proportional to the average translational K.E.         C) Both of the above
B) Proportional to the absolute temperature  D) Proportional to the volume only
Q.44        In solid state detector ____ is used.
(A) silicon                                                       (B) germanium           
(C) tin                                                              (D) both Si and Ge



MCAT ORIGINAL PAPER
Total MCQs: 220                                                                                           Max. Marks: 1100
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 150 Minutes
ENGLISH
Directions:
Choose the right option to complete the following sentences.
Q.53        He had a heart attack and all attempts to _________ him failed.
A) Renew                                                        C) Revise
B) Resuscitate                                                 D) Refurnish
Q.54        The __________ stench of dead animals and plants made Mumtaz III.
A) Putrid                                                         C) Perturbed
B) Purified                                                      D) Purchased
Q.55        While going up the hills, by bus, she felt _______ inside.
A) Fishy                                                          C) Queasy
B) Itchy                                                           D) Squeezy
Q.56        The crafty statesman manipulated the situation by making false promises and declaring festivals as a __________ to fool the public.
A) Red-hearing                                               C) Red-herring
B) Red-feather                                                D) Red-hairing
SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentence some segments of each sentence underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to the letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.57        The theory was discarded as there was no corroborating evidence for its favour.
        A)         B)   C)                                                          D)
Q.58        The workers were raising much hue and cry when their demands were turned away.
A)        B)                                                  C)                              D)
Q.59        Aslam was badly cudgeled from his step-brother; He received many burkes and
A)                                                                    B)
contusions. Thank God! No in was serious. 
                        C)                          D)
Q.60        I extend a cordial invitation for you to visit our form house. We have grown
  A)        B)                                                        C)
vegetables without chemical fertile over there. 
                                                              D)
Q.61                    Although he is not a close relative of me yet I was greeted with a show of deep cordiality.
           A)                    C)           B)         D)
Q.62         
A)                                                                    C)
B)                                                                    D)

Directions: In each question in the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in MCQ Response Form.
Q.63         
A) Why does not Nomana remained true to her husband?   
B) Why did not Nomana remain true to her husband?
C) Why had not Nomana remain true to her husband?         
D) Why did not Nomana remained true to her husband?


Q.64         
A) All my childhood, I longed desperately in for a tricycle.
B) All my childhood, I longed desperately to a tricycle.
C) All my childhood, I longed desperately for a tricycle.     
D) All my childhood, I longed desperately at a tricycle.
Q.65         
A) She felt unreal to the voice informed her of the subway accident.          
B) She felt unreal as the voice informed her of the subway accident.
C) She felt unreal that the voice informed her of the subway accident.       
D) She felt unreal for the voice informed her of the subway accident.
Q.66         
A) Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest person in the world.   
B) Bill Gates is one of the wealthy person in the world.
C) Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest persons in the world.          
D) Bill Gates is one of the more wealthy person in the world.
Q.67         
A) Her father is a SP in the Punjab Police.    
B) Her father was a SP in the Punjab Police.
C) Her father is an SP in the Punjab Police.
D) Her father are a SP in the Punjab Police.
Q.68         
A) There were musical instruments in the shop.
B) There was musical instruments in the shop.
C) There has musical instruments in the shop.
FlowerD) There is musical instruments in the shop.
Q.69         
A) He died for heart attack in 1982.
B) He died with heart attack in 1982.
C) He died in heart attack in 1982.
D) He died of heart attack in 1982.
Q.70         
A) Always speak in the truth.
B) Always tell for the truth.
C) Always tell the truth.
D) Always telling truth.
Q.71         
A) Hand up the answer sheet to me.
B) Hand over the answer sheet to me.
C) Hand down the answer sheet to me.
D) Hand for the answer sheet to me.
Q.72         
A) Are you noticed the peach blossoms?
B) Have you noticed the peach blossoms?
C) Will you noticed the peach blossoms?
D) Were you notice the peach blossoms?


Directions: In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.73        DISSONANCE
A) Inconsistency                                             C) Perceptible
B) Expansion                                                  D) Warp

Q.74        TRIFLE
A) Pudding                                                     C) Deluge
B) Minar                                                          D) Treble

Q.75        MURKY
A) Dusty                                                         C) Clear
B) Squeamy                                                    D) Unclear

Q.76        FAUX
A) Blunder                                                      C) Indiscretion
B) Mistake                                                      D) Felse

Q.77        MYRIAD
A) Countable                                                  C) Measured
B) Multitude                                                   D) Blurred

Q.78        FACILE
A) Fallacy                                                       C) Delicate
B) Depict                                                        D) Superficial

Q.79        MAGNUM
A) Masterpiece                                                C) Modest
B) Magnanimity                                              D) Magnetic

Q.80        SIDLE
A) Sneak                                                         C) Siege
B) Sift                                                             D) Sieve

Q.81        PLETHORA
A) Plastic                                                        C) Pleasure
B) Superfluity                                                 D) Malleable

Q.82        VERTEX
A) Poetry                                                        C) Zenith
B) Depth                                                         D) Diminish

MCAT ORIGINAL PAPER
Total MCQs: 220                                                                                           Max. Marks: 1100
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed: 150 Minutes
BIOLOGY
Q.83        The part of neuron fibre which conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is:
A) Dendron                                                     C) Axon
B) Dendrites                                                   D) Peripheral branch
Q.84        The number of cranial nerves in humans is:
A) 31 pairs                                                      C) 24 pairs
B) 12 pairs                                                       D) 62 pairs
Q.85        The part of brain which controls breathing, heart rate and swallowing is:
A) Cerebrum                                                   C) Medulla
B) Cerebellum                                                 D) Hypothalamus
Q.86        Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by:
A) Neisseria gonorrhea                                   C) Trepenema pallidum.
B) 2.cell                                                           D) Mycobacterium evium
Q.87        Discharge of evum or secondary oocyte form ovary or from Graffian follicle is called:
A) Fertilation                                                  C) Fellium ferition
B) Pollination                                                  D) Ovulation
Q.88        Second meiotle division in the secondary oocyte proceeds as far as:
A) Metophase                                                 C) Aneprese
B) Proohase                                                     D) Tetepees
Q.89        Which one of the followings differentiates directly into mature sperm?
A) Primary spermotocyte                                C) Spermate gonia
B) Secondary spermatecyte                            D) Spermatid
Q.90        Uterus opens into the vagina through:
A) Cervix                                                        C) External gentielia
B) Fallopian tube                                            D) Vulva
Q.91        Each muscle fibre is surrounded by a membrane which is called:
A) Sarcomere                                                  C) Twitch fibre
B) Sarcolemme                                                D) Capsule
Q.92        When calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they bind with ________ dot muscle contraction:
A) Tropomyosin                                              C) Cytosol’s ions
B) Sarcotemma                                               D) Troponin
Q.93        Human and mammalian skeleton can be divided into two parts, axial skeleton and:
A) Appendicular skeleton                               C) Endoskeleton
B) Exeskeleton                                                D) Hydrostatic skeleton
Q.94        Last four vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called:
A) Sacrum                                                       C) Pubis
B) Cervical vertebrae                                      D) Coccyx
Q.95        How many bones are involved in the formation of each half of pelvic girdle?
A) 3 bones                                                       C) 2 bones
B) 4 bones                                                       D) 1 bone
Q.96        Ductless glands are known as:
A) Endocrine glands                                       C) Salivary glands
B) Exocrine glands                                         D) Bile glands

Q.97        Gastrin is the hormone which is produced by the:
A) Liver                                                          C) Pyloric region of stomach
B) Adrenal gland                                            D) Mucosal lining of intestine
Q.98        b-cells of liver secrete a hormone that is called:
A) Insulin                                                        C) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Glucagons                                                  D) Gastrin
Q.99        Vasopressin and Oxytocin are released form the:
A) Piacenta                                                     C) Anterior pituitary
B) Ovary                                                         D) Posterior pituitary
Q.100    Antigen is a foreign protein or any other molecule which stimulates the formation of:
A) MHC complex                                           C) Mucus
B) Immunogen                                                D) Antibodies
Q.101    Antibodies are produced by which of the following lymphocytes?
A) D lymphocytes                                           C) T lymphocytes
B) A lymphocytes                                           D) A and T lymphocytes
Q.102    T-lymphocytes become mature and competent under the influence of:
A) Liver                                                          C) Thymus gland
B) Bursa of fabriclus                                       D) Spleen
Q.103    Skin and mucous membranes are part of the body defense system and they form the:
A) Physical barriers                                         C) Chemical barriers
B) Mechanical barriers                                    D) Biological barriers
Q.104    Snake bite is treated with which type of immunization?
A) Active                                                        C) Humeral
B) Passive                                                       D) Specific
Q.105    The product (s) of cyclic photophosphorylation is /are:
A) ATP                                                           C) NADP and ATP
B) NADP                                                        D) NADP, ATP and O2
Q.106    Total NADH formed by one glucose molecule during Kreb’s cycle are:
A) 6                                                                 C) 8
B) 3                                                                 D) 18
Q.107    The terminal electron acceptor in electron transport chain is:
A) Hydrogen                                                   C) Cytochrome
B) Iron                                                            D) Oxygen
Q.108    The end product of glycolysis is:
A) ADP                                                           C) citric acid
B) Reduced FAD                                           D) Pyruvate
Q.109    One molecule of FADH2 is produced in Kreb’s cycle during conversion of:
A) Fumarate ® Malate                                   C) Melate ® Oxaloacetate
B) Succinate ® Fumarate                               D) a-Ketoglutarate ® Succinate
Q.110    In recombinant DNA technology __________ are tools for manipulating DNA
A) Viruses                                                       C) Enzymes
B) Chromosomes                                            D) Genes
Q.111    In DNA finger printing process, the use of ________ produces distinctive pattern on autoradiography or X-ray film:
A) Restriction enzymes                                   C) Macrosatellites
B) Micro satellites                                           D) Probes for genetic markers
Q.112    In the recombinant DNA technology plasmids are used as:
A) Genetic material                                         C) vectors
B) Enzymes                                                     D) Probes

Q.113    In which process multiple coples of the desired genes are produced?
A) Polymerase chain reaction                         C) Analyzing DNA
B) Gene sequencing                                        D) DNA finger printing
Q.114    The enzyme adenosine deaminase is missing is persons suffering from:
A) Cystic fibrosis                                            C) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndreme
B) hypercholesterolemla                                 D) Parkinson’s disease
Q.115    What is the niche of an organism in an ecosystem?
A) Role played by many organisms in an ecosystem
Bio
B) Rote played by a dead organism in an ecosystem
C) Rote played by community of microorganisms in their ecosystem          
D) Rote played by an organism in its ecosystem

Q.116    The distinct levels or links of food chain are called:
A) Trophic level                                              C) Energy pyramid
B) Food web                                                   D) Food chain
Q.117    A relationship between two or more organisms of different species in which all partners get ber called:
A) Symbiosis                                                   C) Commensalisms
B) Parasitism                                                   D) Predation
Q.118    Bacteria and fungi are examples of:
A) Producers                                                   C) Consumers
B) Decomposers                                              D) Derivers
Q.119    The cause of acid rain is:
A) Oxides of carbon                                       C) Oxides of sulphur
B) Oxides of nitrogen endisulphur                 D) Oxides of nitrogen
Q.120    When the presence of a gene at one locus suppresses the effect of a gene at another loct phenomenon is called:
A) Hypostasis                                                 C) epleasis
B) Pieiatrepy                                                   D)
Q.121    The gene for ABO-blood group system in humans is repasenter, by symae:
A) X                                                                C) Y
B) I                                                                  D) O
Q.122    When a single gene affects two or more traits , the phenomenon is called:
A) Epistasis                                                     C) Dominance
B) Pleiotropy                                                   D) over dominance
Q.123    The comparative embryology of all vertebrates shows development of _______
A) Hairs                                                          C) Scales
B) Gill pouches                                               D) Flns
Q.124    In men sex-determination depends upon the nature of:_____________
A) Heterogametic male                                   C) Heterogametic female
B) Homogametic female                                 D) Homogametic male
Q.125    Population of different species (plants and animals) living in the same habitat form a:
A) Community                                                C) Biosphere
B) Ecosystem                                                  D) Microhabitat
Q.126    The part of the body which forms a structural and functional unit and is composed of more tissue is called
A) Organ                                                         C) Organ system
B) Organelle                                                    D) Whole organism

Q.127    A method in which pests are destroyed by using some living organisms or natural enemies is c:
A) Pasteurization                                            C) Slotogical control
B) Integrated disease management                 D) Genetic engineering
Q.128    Chemicals produced by microorganisms which are capabic of destroying the growth of microbes are called:
A) Antigen                                                      C) Antiseptics
B) Blocidal                                                      D) Antibiotics
Q.129    Plastids are only found in the:
A) Animals and plants                                    C) Plants
B) Animals                                                      D) Viruses
Q.130    Plasma membrane is chemically composed of:
A) Phospholipids only                                    C) Upids and carbohydrates
B) Lipids and proteins                                    D) Glycoprotein’s
Q.131    Endoplasmic reticulum contains a system of flattened membrane-bounded sacs which are named as:
A) Cristae                                                        C) Cisternae
B) Marks                                                         D) Tubules
Q.132    Lipids synthesis/ metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle?
A) Mitochondria                                             C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Vacuoles                                                    D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q.133    Ribosome’s exist in two forms, either attached with the RER or freely dispersed in the:
A) Tonoplast                                                   C) cytoplasm
B) Golgi bodies                                               D) SER
Q.134    Exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes is called:
A) Segregation                                                C) Crossing over
B) Independent assortment                            D) Mutation
Q.135    If a person has 44 autosomes + XXY, he will suffer form:
A) Klinefelter’s syndrome                              C) Turner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome                                      D) Edward’s syndrome
Q.136    The ribosomal RNA is synthesized and stored in:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum                              C) Golgi complex
B) Nucloolus                                                   D) Chromosomes
Q.137    In which stage of interphase, there is increase in cell size and many biochemical’s are formed?
A) G phase                                                      C) S phase
B) G phase                                                      D) C phase
Q.138    In Down’s syndrome which one of the following pair of chromosome falls to segregate?
A) 7                                                                 C) 21
B) 18                                                               D) 19
Q.139    Carbohydrates are organic molecules and contain three elements:
A) Carbon, water and oxygen                        C) carbon, calcium and hydrogen
B) Carbon, sulphur and hydrogen                  D) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
Q.140    Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both?
A) Ribose and heptolose                                 C) Glucose and galactose
B) Glycoraldehydes and dihydroxyacetone   D) Fructose and ribulose
Q.141    Which of the following is a peptide bond?
A) – C – N                                                      C) – C – P
B) – C – O                                                      D) – C – S
Q.142    Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
A) acetic acid                                                  C) Oleic acid
B) Butyric acid                                               D) Palmitic acid
Q.143    Which of following combination of base pair is a absent in DNA
A) A – T                                                          C) A – U
B) C – G                                                         D) T – A
Q.144    The type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate and combines with enzyme at other than the active site is called:
A) Irreversible inhibition                                 C) Non-competitive and reversible inhibition
B) Cementation inhibition                              D) Reversible inhibition
Q.145    The inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy, their globular structure as catalytic activity are:
A) Reversible inhibitors                                  C) Competitive inhibiters
B) Irreversible inhibitors                                 D) Non-competitive inhibitors
Q.146    Enzyme succinater dehydrogenase converts succinate into:
A) Malate                                                        C) Cltrate
B) Malonic acid                                              D) Fumarate
Q.147    If the detachable co-factor is an inorganic ion then it is designated as:
A) Coenzyme                                                  C) Holoenzyme
B) Prosthetic group                                         D) Activator
Q.148    In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single stranded RNA into double stranded viral DNA This process is called:
A) Transiation                                                 C) Replication
B) Duplication                                                D) Reverse transcription
Q.149    Mesesomes are intolding of the cell membrane and are involved in
A) CAN replication                                        C) Protein synthesis
B) RNA synthesis                                           D) Metabolism
Q.150    Most wideaspread problem of the antibiotic misuse is the:
A) Rapid cure                                                 C) Disturbance of metabolite
B) Increased resistance in pathogens              D) Immunity
Q.151    Which of the following component is found in the cell wall of fungi?
A) Cellulose                                                    C) proteins
B) Chitin                                                         D) glycerin
Q.152    The male reproductive parts of the flower are called:
A) Glycecium                                                  C) Androecium’s
B) Golyx                                                         D) Corolla
Q.153    Fasciola is the name given to:
A) Taseworm                                                  C) Liver fluke
B) pianaria                                                       D) Earthworm
Q.154    Ascaris is:
A) Diplosistic                                                  C) Haploid
B) Triploslastic                                                D) Acoelomate
Q.155    During development in an animal reccoderm layer gives rise to
A) Nerveus system                                          C) Muscular and skeletal system
B) Alimentary canal lining                              D) Mouth
Q.156    Polymorphism is characteristic feature of:
A) perifera                                                       C) Annetlica
B) Cnuria                                                        D) nematoces
Q.157    The muscles of the stomach walls thoroughly mix up the feed with gastric fulces and the result semi-solid/ semi-liquid material is called:
A) Bolus                                                          C) Mucus
B) Bolus or chyme                                          D) Chuyme
Q.158    Trypsinogen is converted into trypsin by the activity of:
A) Gesiet cells                                                 C) Enerokinase
B) Atsorptive cells                                          D) Peptidase
Q.159    In large intestine, vitamin k is formed by the activity of
A) Symbiotic bacteria                                     C) parasitic bacteria
B) Cbtlgate parasite                                        D) Facultative bacteria
Q.160    Goblet cells secrete:
A) RCl                                                            C) Enzymes
B) Mucus                                                        D) Amylase
Q.161    Mature mammalian red blood cells do not have:
A) Nucleus                                                      C) Fluids
B) Red color                                                   D) Haemoglobin
Q.162    In a normal person plasma constitutes about________ by volume of blood.
A) 50%                                                            C) 45%
B) 60%                                                            D) 55%
Q.163    Which vain has oxygenated blood?
A) Renal vein                                                  C) Pulmonary vein
B) Subclavian vein                                          D) Jugular vein
Q.164    What is the residual volume of air which always remains inside the lungs of human?
A) 3.5 litres                                                     C) 5.0 litres
B) 0.5 litres                                                     D) 1.5 litres
Q.165    In nephron, most of the reassertion takes plane in the
A) Distal tubule                                              C) Ascending limb
B) Proximal tubule                                          D) Descending limb
Q.166    Detection of change are signaling for effector’s response to the control system is a:
A) Negative feedback                                     C) inter-coordination
B) Positive feedback                                       D) Feedback mechanism
Q.167    What are three components of mechanism of homeostatic regulation?
A) Receptors, control centre and effectors    
B) Sensory, motor and associative neurons   
C) CNS, peripheral nervous system and diffused nervous system
D) Cerebrum Cerebellum and pons
Q.168    Blood enters the glomerulus’s through:
A) Efferent arteriole                                       C) Renal artery
B) Afferent arteriole                                       D) Renal vein
Q.169    Which portion of nephron is under the control of ADH?
A) Bowman’s capsule                                     C) Distal and collecting ducts
B) Ascending arm                                           D) Descending arm
Q.170    Cause of Parkinson’s disease is death of brain cells that produce:
A) Dopamine                                                  C) ADH hormone
B) Acetylcholine                                             D) Oxytocin



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