FULL LENGTH
PAPER
AS PER PATTERN
Total
MCQs: 220
Max.
Marks: 1100 Time
Allowed: 150 Minute
PHYSICS
Q.1
The dimensions
for angular displacement is
A)
[L-1] C)
[L]
B)
[T] D) Dimensionless
Q.2
Which of the following is not a S.I. base
quantity
A) Mass C) Velocity
Q.3
Which of the following objects have
every point on its surface equidistant from its centre of weight (centre of
gravity):
A) An egg C) A table tennis ball
B) A cubic box D)
A triangle
Q.4
Which of the following statements is
false
A) The centre of gravity of a rectangular plate is at the point of
intersection of its diagonals
B) The centre of
gravity of a thin uniform rod is halfway along the rod
C) The centre of
gravity of a square plate is at the point of its balance
D)
The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at one of its vertices
Q.5
Ideal fluid is
A)
Incompressible C)
Non – viscous
B)
Steady flow D) All of these
Q.6
A fluid entering a pipe from a point of
larger cross section and exits from the point of the same pipe having smaller
cross section. Its pressure energy at the exit would
A)
Decrease because of high velocity
B) Increase
because of high velocity
C) Remains the
same as inlet pressure
D) Increases
because of low velocity
Q.7
What do you infer from the Bernoulli’s
equation:
A) This theorem
is valid only for the turbulent flow of the fluid
B)
Where the speed of the fluid is high, the pressure would be low
C) Where the
speed is high, the pressure would be low
D) All of the
above
Q.8
The value of absolute zero on Fahrenheit
scale:
A) 359.4oF C)
100oF
B)
-459.4oF D) -259.4oF
Q.9
1
Sv is equal to
(A) 0.01 rem (B) 100 rem
(C) 1 rad (D)
0.01 Gy
Q.10
The normal temperature of a human body
on centigrade scale is:
A) 98.6o C) 37o
B) 40o D)
459.4o
Q.11
In S.H.M the K.E at the equilibrium
position is:
A) Zero as the
acceleration is zero
B) Minimum as
the instantaneous displacement is zero
C) Minimum as
the instantaneous displacement is zero
D)
Maximum as the velocity is maximum
Q.12
Maximum acceleration with zero velocity
is possible only for:
A) Non inertial
frame of reference C) Simple harmonic motion
B) Rotational
motion D)
Random motion
Q.13
When a source is moving
towards a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency will be:
A)
Greater than the original frequency C)
Smaller than the original frequency
B)
Remains the same as that of original frequency D)
None of the above
Q.14
A
technique for detecting the pressure of objects under water by acoustical echo
is called
A) Doppler effect C)
Radar
B) Sonar D)
Red shift
Q.15
Two unequal resistances are connected parallel across a battery.
Which of the following statement is true?
A) Same current will
flow through both resistances.
B) Current through smaller resistance is higher.
C) Current through larger
resistance is higher.
D) Current can be higher in any
resistance depending on emf of the cell.
Q.16
If the waves interfere
constructively, the amplitude of the resulting wave would be:
A) Less than either of
the individual wave
B)
Greater than either of the individual wave
C) Equal to the
shortest of the individual waves
D) Equal to the
greatest of the individual wave
Q.17
Thin film of oil on
water shows colour pattern when illuminated by white light due to
A)
Interference C)
Polarization
B) Dispersion D)
Scattering
Q.18
Monochromatic light
means the light having:
A) One colour C)
Single wavelength
B) Single frequency D) All of above
Q.19
If two or more
resistors are joined side by side, this combination is called:
A) Series combination
of resistors C) Y delta
combination of resistors
B)
Parallel combination of resistors D)
None of the above
Q.20
Which of the following
quantities remain the same in/across the resistors connected in series Combination?
A) Charge flow C)
Both of the above
B)
Current D)
Voltage
Q.21
What
is voltage across RL is the given circuit
A)
3.6 V C)
12 V
B) 6.3 V
D)
10V
Q.22
The strength of the
magnetic field outside a solenoid is weak because:
A)
Lines of force are quite far from each other
B)
The lines of force are in the same direction and tend to cancel out the effect
of each other
C)
The lines of force are opposite to each other and tend to cancel out the effect
of each other
D) Both a and c are
correct
Q.23
The direction of
magnetic field as given by Fleming’s rule for the solenoid is along:
A) Normal to the
solenoid C)
Can’t be taken
B)
The axis of the solenoid D)
None of the above
Q.24
The
direction of magnetic field at a point on the magnetic lines of force can be
taken along:
A) Normal at that point C) The tangent at that point
B)
Axis of the magnetic line of force at that point D) Perpendicular to the axis of the
solenoid
Q.25
Shear stress addresses
to the:
A) Volume changes due to the applied stress C) Shape changes due to the applied stress
B) Length changes due to the applied stress D) All of the above
Q.26
The substances
undergoing plastic deformation until they break are known as
A) Brittle
substances C)
Elastic substances
B) Ductile substances D)
Plastic substances
Q.27
Which
of the following will represent OR gate
Q.28
Energy of the
electromagnetic radiation is far more than 1.02 MeV.
The dominant process will be
A) photoelectric
effect C) materialization of energy
B) Compton
scattering D)
all are equally probable
Q.29
The target in the X ray
unit is given a:
A) Zero
potential C)
Low negative potential
B) High negative
potential D) positive potential
Q.30
X rays are similar in
nature to:
A) Cathode rays C) Gamma rays
B) Canal rays D)
Beta rays
Q.31
The velocity of X rays
is equal to that of:
A) Speed of
sound C)
Speed of a-particles
B) Speed of
electron D) Speed of light and γ-rays
Q.32
X rays are affected by:
A) Electric
field only C)
Electric and magnetic field
B) Magnetic
field only D) None of these
Q.33
The penetrating power
of X rays increases with:
A) Decrease in
velocity C)
Increase in velocity
B) Increase in frequency D)
Decrease in their intensity
Q.34
Q.31 Display in CRO would be stationary if input
signal and saw tooth signal have same
A)
Time period C)
Both “A” and “B”
B) Voltage D) Amplitude
Q.35
Kα characteristic
X rays are produced due to the transition of electrons:
A) From M to L
shell C) From L to K shell
B) From N to M
shell D)
From K to L shell
Q.36
Name of the atom not
used for tracer:
A) Na-34 C)
C-14
B) I-131 D) C-12
Q.37
Which one is more energetic x-ray
(a) Kα
x-ray (b)
Kβ x-ray
(c) Kγ x-ray
(d)
all kind of x-rays have same energy
Q.38
The characteristic
x-rays appear as discrete lines on a
A) Discrete spectrum C) Band
spectrum
B)
Continuous spectrum D)
All of these
Q.39
A detector which can
count fast and operate at low voltages is
A) G.M. counter C)
Wilson could chamber
B)
Solid state detector D)
Bubble chamber
Q.40
Biological
effect of radiation depends upon
A)
Ionization power of radiation C) Both “A” and “B”
B)
Nature of part of body D)
Nature of material emitting the radiation
Q.41
The unit of the rate of
absorption of a radiation to have the same biological effects on different
parts of the human body is called a:
A) roentgen C)
rad
B)
rem D)
curie
Q.42
A method of recording and producing
three dimensional image is named as
(A) interference (B) diffraction
(C)
holography (D)
topography
Q.43
Pressure of a gas is:
A)
Proportional to the average translational K.E. C) Both of the above
B)
Proportional to the absolute temperature D)
Proportional to the volume only
Q.44
In solid state detector ____ is used.
(A) silicon (B) germanium
(C) tin (D) both Si and Ge
MCAT ORIGINAL PAPER
Total
MCQs: 220 Max.
Marks: 1100
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed:
150 Minutes
ENGLISH
Directions:
Choose the right
option to complete the following sentences.
Q.53
He
had a heart attack and all attempts to _________ him failed.
A)
Renew C)
Revise
B) Resuscitate D)
Refurnish
Q.54
The
__________ stench of dead animals and plants made Mumtaz III.
A)
Putrid C)
Perturbed
B) Purified D)
Purchased
Q.55
While
going up the hills, by bus, she felt _______ inside.
A)
Fishy C)
Queasy
B) Itchy D)
Squeezy
Q.56
The
crafty statesman manipulated the situation by making false promises and
declaring festivals as a __________ to fool the public.
A)
Red-hearing C)
Red-herring
B) Red-feather D)
Red-hairing
SPOT
THE ERROR: In the following sentence some segments of each
sentence underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the
sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the
circle corresponding to the letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.57
The
theory was discarded as there was no corroborating evidence
for its favour.
A) B) C) D)
Q.58
The
workers were raising much hue and cry when their demands
were turned away.
A) B) C) D)
Q.59
Aslam
was badly cudgeled from his step-brother; He received many burkes
and
A) B)
contusions.
Thank God! No in was serious.
C) D)
Q.60
I
extend a cordial invitation for you to visit our form house. We
have grown
A) B)
C)
vegetables
without chemical fertile over there.
D)
Q.61
Although he is not a close relative of me yet I
was greeted with a show of deep cordiality.
A) C) B) D)
Q.62
A) C)
B)
D)
Directions: In each question in
the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle
corresponding to that letter in MCQ Response Form.
Q.63
A)
Why does not Nomana remained true to her husband?
B) Why did not
Nomana remain true to her husband?
C) Why had not
Nomana remain true to her husband?
D) Why did not
Nomana remained true to her husband?
Q.64
A)
All my childhood, I longed desperately in for a tricycle.
B) All my childhood, I
longed desperately to a tricycle.
C) All my childhood, I
longed desperately for a tricycle.
D) All my childhood, I
longed desperately at a tricycle.
Q.65
A)
She felt unreal to the voice informed her of the subway accident.
B) She felt unreal as
the voice informed her of the subway accident.
C) She felt unreal that
the voice informed her of the subway accident.
D) She felt unreal for
the voice informed her of the subway accident.
Q.66
A)
Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest person in the world.
B) Bill Gates is one of
the wealthy person in the world.
C)
Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest persons in the world.
D) Bill Gates is one of
the more wealthy person in the world.
Q.67
A)
Her father is a SP in the Punjab Police.
B) Her father was a SP
in the Punjab Police.
C) Her father is an SP
in the Punjab Police.
D) Her father are a SP
in the Punjab Police.
Q.68
A)
There were musical instruments in the shop.
B) There was musical
instruments in the shop.
C) There has musical
instruments in the shop.
Q.69
A)
He died for heart attack in 1982.
B) He died with heart
attack in 1982.
C) He died in heart
attack in 1982.
D) He died of heart
attack in 1982.
Q.70
A)
Always speak in the truth.
B) Always tell for the
truth.
C) Always tell the
truth.
D) Always telling
truth.
Q.71
A)
Hand up the answer sheet to me.
B) Hand over the answer
sheet to me.
C) Hand down the answer
sheet to me.
D) Hand for the answer
sheet to me.
Q.72
A)
Are you noticed the peach blossoms?
B) Have you noticed the
peach blossoms?
C) Will you noticed the
peach blossoms?
D) Were you notice the
peach blossoms?
Directions: In each of the following question, four
alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest
correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on
the MCQ Response Form.
Q.73
DISSONANCE
A)
Inconsistency C)
Perceptible
B) Expansion D)
Warp
Q.74
TRIFLE
A)
Pudding C)
Deluge
B) Minar D)
Treble
Q.75
MURKY
A)
Dusty C)
Clear
B) Squeamy D)
Unclear
Q.76
FAUX
A)
Blunder C)
Indiscretion
B) Mistake D)
Felse
Q.77
MYRIAD
A)
Countable C)
Measured
B) Multitude D)
Blurred
Q.78
FACILE
A)
Fallacy C)
Delicate
B) Depict D)
Superficial
Q.79
MAGNUM
A)
Masterpiece C)
Modest
B) Magnanimity D) Magnetic
Q.80
SIDLE
A)
Sneak C)
Siege
B) Sift D)
Sieve
Q.81
PLETHORA
A)
Plastic C)
Pleasure
B) Superfluity D)
Malleable
Q.82
VERTEX
A)
Poetry C)
Zenith
B) Depth D)
Diminish
MCAT ORIGINAL PAPER
Total
MCQs: 220 Max.
Marks: 1100
For F.Sc. and Non-F.Sc. Students
Time Allowed:
150 Minutes
BIOLOGY
Q.83
The
part of neuron fibre which conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is:
A)
Dendron C)
Axon
B) Dendrites D)
Peripheral branch
Q.84
The
number of cranial nerves in humans is:
A) 31
pairs C)
24 pairs
B) 12 pairs D)
62 pairs
Q.85
The
part of brain which controls breathing, heart rate and swallowing is:
A) Cerebrum C)
Medulla
B) Cerebellum D)
Hypothalamus
Q.86
Syphilis
is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by:
A) Neisseria gonorrhea C)
Trepenema pallidum.
B) 2.cell D)
Mycobacterium evium
Q.87
Discharge
of evum or secondary oocyte form ovary or from Graffian follicle is called:
A)
Fertilation C)
Fellium ferition
B) Pollination D)
Ovulation
Q.88
Second
meiotle division in the secondary oocyte proceeds as far as:
A)
Metophase C)
Aneprese
B) Proohase D)
Tetepees
Q.89
Which
one of the followings differentiates directly into mature sperm?
A)
Primary spermotocyte C)
Spermate gonia
B) Secondary
spermatecyte D)
Spermatid
Q.90
Uterus
opens into the vagina through:
A)
Cervix C)
External gentielia
B) Fallopian
tube D)
Vulva
Q.91
Each
muscle fibre is surrounded by a membrane which is called:
A)
Sarcomere C)
Twitch fibre
B) Sarcolemme D)
Capsule
Q.92
When
calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they bind with ________
dot muscle contraction:
A) Tropomyosin C)
Cytosol’s ions
B) Sarcotemma D)
Troponin
Q.93
Human
and mammalian skeleton can be divided into two parts, axial skeleton and:
A)
Appendicular skeleton C)
Endoskeleton
B) Exeskeleton D)
Hydrostatic skeleton
Q.94
Last four
vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called:
A) Sacrum C)
Pubis
B) Cervical vertebrae D)
Coccyx
Q.95
How
many bones are involved in the formation of each half of pelvic girdle?
A) 3
bones C)
2 bones
B) 4 bones D)
1 bone
Q.96
Ductless
glands are known as:
A)
Endocrine glands C)
Salivary glands
B) Exocrine
glands D)
Bile glands
Q.97
Gastrin
is the hormone which is produced by the:
A)
Liver C)
Pyloric region of stomach
B) Adrenal gland D) Mucosal
lining of intestine
Q.98
b-cells
of liver secrete a hormone that is called:
A)
Insulin C)
Antidiuretic hormone
B) Glucagons D)
Gastrin
Q.99
Vasopressin
and Oxytocin are released form the:
A)
Piacenta C)
Anterior pituitary
B) Ovary D)
Posterior pituitary
Q.100 Antigen is a
foreign protein or any other molecule which stimulates the formation of:
A)
MHC complex C)
Mucus
B) Immunogen D)
Antibodies
Q.101
Antibodies
are produced by which of the following lymphocytes?
A) D
lymphocytes C)
T lymphocytes
B) A lymphocytes D) A
and T lymphocytes
Q.102
T-lymphocytes
become mature and competent under the influence of:
A)
Liver C)
Thymus gland
B) Bursa of
fabriclus D)
Spleen
Q.103 Skin and mucous
membranes are part of the body defense system and they form the:
A)
Physical barriers C)
Chemical barriers
B) Mechanical
barriers D)
Biological barriers
Q.104
Snake
bite is treated with which type of immunization?
A)
Active C)
Humeral
B) Passive D)
Specific
Q.105
The
product (s) of cyclic photophosphorylation is /are:
A)
ATP C)
NADP and ATP
B) NADP D)
NADP, ATP and O2
Q.106
Total
NADH formed by one glucose molecule during Kreb’s cycle are:
A)
6 C)
8
B) 3 D)
18
Q.107
The
terminal electron acceptor in electron transport chain is:
A)
Hydrogen C)
Cytochrome
B) Iron D)
Oxygen
Q.108
The
end product of glycolysis is:
A)
ADP C)
citric acid
B) Reduced FAD D) Pyruvate
Q.109
One
molecule of FADH2 is produced in Kreb’s cycle during conversion of:
A)
Fumarate ®
Malate C)
Melate ®
Oxaloacetate
B) Succinate ®
Fumarate D) a-Ketoglutarate
®
Succinate
Q.110
In
recombinant DNA technology __________ are tools for manipulating DNA
A)
Viruses C)
Enzymes
B) Chromosomes D) Genes
Q.111
In
DNA finger printing process, the use of ________ produces distinctive pattern
on autoradiography or X-ray film:
A)
Restriction enzymes C)
Macrosatellites
B) Micro satellites D) Probes
for genetic markers
Q.112
In
the recombinant DNA technology plasmids are used as:
A)
Genetic material C)
vectors
B) Enzymes D)
Probes
Q.113
In
which process multiple coples of the desired genes are produced?
A)
Polymerase chain reaction C)
Analyzing DNA
B) Gene sequencing D) DNA
finger printing
Q.114
The
enzyme adenosine deaminase is missing is persons suffering from:
A)
Cystic fibrosis C) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndreme
B) hypercholesterolemla D) Parkinson’s
disease
Q.115
What
is the niche of an organism in an ecosystem?
A)
Role played by many organisms in an ecosystem
B)
Rote played by a dead organism in an ecosystem
C) Rote played by
community of microorganisms in their ecosystem
D) Rote played by an
organism in its ecosystem
Q.116
The
distinct levels or links of food chain are called:
A)
Trophic level C)
Energy pyramid
B) Food web D)
Food chain
Q.117
A relationship
between two or more organisms of different species in which all partners get
ber called:
A)
Symbiosis C)
Commensalisms
B) Parasitism D)
Predation
Q.118
Bacteria
and fungi are examples of:
A)
Producers C)
Consumers
B) Decomposers D)
Derivers
Q.119
The
cause of acid rain is:
A)
Oxides of carbon C)
Oxides of sulphur
B) Oxides of nitrogen
endisulphur D) Oxides of
nitrogen
Q.120
When
the presence of a gene at one locus suppresses the effect of a gene at another
loct phenomenon is called:
A)
Hypostasis C)
epleasis
B) Pieiatrepy D)
Q.121
The
gene for ABO-blood group system in humans is repasenter, by symae:
A)
X C)
Y
B) I D)
O
Q.122
When
a single gene affects two or more traits , the phenomenon is called:
A)
Epistasis C)
Dominance
B) Pleiotropy D)
over dominance
Q.123
The
comparative embryology of all vertebrates shows development of _______
A)
Hairs C)
Scales
B) Gill pouches D)
Flns
Q.124
In
men sex-determination depends upon the nature of:_____________
A)
Heterogametic male C)
Heterogametic female
B) Homogametic female D) Homogametic
male
Q.125 Population
of different species (plants and animals) living in the same habitat form a:
A)
Community C)
Biosphere
B) Ecosystem D)
Microhabitat
Q.126
The
part of the body which forms a structural and functional unit and is composed
of more tissue is called
A)
Organ C)
Organ system
B) Organelle D)
Whole organism
Q.127
A
method in which pests are destroyed by using some living organisms or natural
enemies is c:
A)
Pasteurization C)
Slotogical control
B) Integrated disease
management D) Genetic
engineering
Q.128
Chemicals
produced by microorganisms which are capabic of destroying the growth of
microbes are called:
A)
Antigen C)
Antiseptics
B) Blocidal D)
Antibiotics
Q.129
Plastids
are only found in the:
A)
Animals and plants C)
Plants
B) Animals D)
Viruses
Q.130
Plasma
membrane is chemically composed of:
A)
Phospholipids only C)
Upids and carbohydrates
B) Lipids and proteins D) Glycoprotein’s
Q.131
Endoplasmic
reticulum contains a system of flattened membrane-bounded sacs which are named
as:
A)
Cristae C)
Cisternae
B) Marks D)
Tubules
Q.132
Lipids
synthesis/ metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle?
A)
Mitochondria C)
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Vacuoles D)
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q.133 Ribosome’s
exist in two forms, either attached with the RER or freely dispersed in the:
A)
Tonoplast C)
cytoplasm
B) Golgi bodies D)
SER
Q.134
Exchange
of segments between homologous chromosomes is called:
A)
Segregation C)
Crossing over
B) Independent
assortment D) Mutation
Q.135
If
a person has 44 autosomes + XXY, he will suffer form:
A)
Klinefelter’s syndrome C)
Turner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome D) Edward’s
syndrome
Q.136
The
ribosomal RNA is synthesized and stored in:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi complex
B) Nucloolus D)
Chromosomes
Q.137
In
which stage of interphase, there is increase in cell size and many
biochemical’s are formed?
A)
G phase C)
S phase
B) G phase D)
C phase
Q.138 In
Down’s syndrome which one of the following pair of chromosome falls to
segregate?
A)
7 C)
21
B) 18 D)
19
Q.139
Carbohydrates
are organic molecules and contain three elements:
A)
Carbon, water and oxygen C)
carbon, calcium and hydrogen
B) Carbon, sulphur and
hydrogen D) carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen
Q.140
Which
one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both?
A)
Ribose and heptolose C)
Glucose and galactose
B) Glycoraldehydes and
dihydroxyacetone D) Fructose and
ribulose
Q.141
Which
of the following is a peptide bond?
A) – C – N C)
– C – P
B)
– C – O D)
– C – S
Q.142
Which
of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
A) acetic acid C)
Oleic acid
B) Butyric acid D)
Palmitic acid
Q.143
Which
of following combination of base pair is a absent in DNA
A) A – T C)
A – U
B)
C – G D)
T – A
Q.144
The
type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate
and combines with enzyme at other than the active site is called:
A)
Irreversible inhibition C) Non-competitive and reversible inhibition
B) Cementation
inhibition D)
Reversible inhibition
Q.145
The
inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy, their
globular structure as catalytic activity are:
A)
Reversible inhibitors C)
Competitive inhibiters
B) Irreversible
inhibitors D)
Non-competitive inhibitors
Q.146
Enzyme
succinater dehydrogenase converts succinate into:
A)
Malate C)
Cltrate
B) Malonic acid D)
Fumarate
Q.147
If
the detachable co-factor is an inorganic ion then it is designated as:
A)
Coenzyme C)
Holoenzyme
B) Prosthetic group D) Activator
Q.148
In
HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single stranded RNA into double
stranded viral DNA This process is called:
A)
Transiation C)
Replication
B) Duplication D)
Reverse transcription
Q.149
Mesesomes
are intolding of the cell membrane and are involved in
A)
CAN replication C)
Protein synthesis
B) RNA synthesis D) Metabolism
Q.150
Most
wideaspread problem of the antibiotic misuse is the:
A)
Rapid cure C)
Disturbance of metabolite
B) Increased resistance
in pathogens D) Immunity
Q.151
Which
of the following component is found in the cell wall of fungi?
A)
Cellulose C)
proteins
B) Chitin D)
glycerin
Q.152
The
male reproductive parts of the flower are called:
A)
Glycecium C)
Androecium’s
B) Golyx D)
Corolla
Q.153
Fasciola
is the name given to:
A)
Taseworm C)
Liver fluke
B) pianaria D)
Earthworm
Q.154
Ascaris
is:
A)
Diplosistic C)
Haploid
B) Triploslastic D)
Acoelomate
Q.155
During
development in an animal reccoderm layer gives rise to
A)
Nerveus system C)
Muscular and skeletal system
B) Alimentary canal
lining D) Mouth
Q.156
Polymorphism
is characteristic feature of:
A) perifera C)
Annetlica
B)
Cnuria D)
nematoces
Q.157
The
muscles of the stomach walls thoroughly mix up the feed with gastric fulces and
the result semi-solid/ semi-liquid material is called:
A)
Bolus C)
Mucus
B) Bolus or chyme D) Chuyme
Q.158
Trypsinogen
is converted into trypsin by the activity of:
A)
Gesiet cells C)
Enerokinase
B) Atsorptive cells D) Peptidase
Q.159
In
large intestine, vitamin k is formed by the activity of
A)
Symbiotic bacteria C)
parasitic bacteria
B) Cbtlgate parasite D) Facultative
bacteria
Q.160
Goblet
cells secrete:
A)
RCl C)
Enzymes
B) Mucus D)
Amylase
Q.161
Mature
mammalian red blood cells do not have:
A)
Nucleus C)
Fluids
B) Red color D)
Haemoglobin
Q.162
In
a normal person plasma constitutes about________ by volume of blood.
A)
50% C)
45%
B) 60% D)
55%
Q.163
Which
vain has oxygenated blood?
A)
Renal vein C)
Pulmonary vein
B) Subclavian vein D) Jugular
vein
Q.164
What
is the residual volume of air which always remains inside the lungs of human?
A)
3.5 litres C)
5.0 litres
B) 0.5 litres D)
1.5 litres
Q.165
In
nephron, most of the reassertion takes plane in the
A)
Distal tubule C)
Ascending limb
B) Proximal tubule D) Descending
limb
Q.166
Detection
of change are signaling for effector’s response to the control system is a:
A)
Negative feedback C)
inter-coordination
B) Positive feedback D) Feedback
mechanism
Q.167
What
are three components of mechanism of homeostatic regulation?
A)
Receptors, control centre and effectors
B) Sensory, motor and
associative neurons
C) CNS, peripheral nervous
system and diffused nervous system
D) Cerebrum Cerebellum
and pons
Q.168
Blood
enters the glomerulus’s through:
A)
Efferent arteriole C)
Renal artery
B) Afferent arteriole D) Renal
vein
Q.169
Which
portion of nephron is under the control of ADH?
A)
Bowman’s capsule C)
Distal and collecting ducts
B) Ascending arm D) Descending
arm
Q.170
Cause
of Parkinson’s disease is death of brain cells that produce:
A)
Dopamine C)
ADH hormone
B) Acetylcholine D) Oxytocin
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